ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023
1. Employees are eligible to take a leave of absence if they have worked for the employer for at least: (EXCEPT)
- A. At least 1,250 hours during the previous 12 months.
- B. At least 12 months.
- C. At least six months.
- D. At a work site with 50 employees within a 75-mile radius.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Employees are eligible to take a leave of absence if they have worked for the employer for at least 12 months, have worked at least 1,250 hours during the previous 12 months, and are at a work site with 50 or more employees, or at a site where 50 workers are employed within 75 miles of the work site. The statement 'At least six months' is incorrect as the requirement is for 12 months of work to be eligible for a leave of absence.
2. In order to minimize or avoid negative outcomes as a result of the violation and disciplinary action, the employee should offer which of the following?
- A. Excuses
- B. Discipline
- C. Suggestions
- D. Rules
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In order to minimize or avoid negative outcomes resulting from a violation and disciplinary action, the employee should offer suggestions. By providing suggestions, the employee demonstrates a willingness to improve and prevent future occurrences. Offering excuses (choice A) may deflect responsibility and not address the issue at hand. Discipline (choice B) is the action taken by the employer, not the employee. Rules (choice D) are guidelines to follow, but in this context, offering suggestions for improvement is more relevant.
3. Which of the following is true of malpractice?
- A. Malpractice occurs when a professional shares information about a patient that could damage that patient�s reputation.
- B. Malpractice is a serious criminal offense.
- C. Malpractice is a minor criminal offense.
- D. Malpractice is a negligent act by an individual whose duties require specialized education.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malpractice is a negligent act by an individual whose duties require specialized education.
4. When should a critical pathway be revised?
- A. When variances show a new trend.
- B. When the variances show a new trend.
- C. When a member of the team retires.
- D. When the client leaves the hospital.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A critical pathway should be revised when variances in the patient's progress indicate a new trend or deviation from the expected course of treatment. This allows healthcare providers to adjust the pathway to ensure optimal patient care and outcomes. Changes in the critical pathway are not typically driven by its length or external factors like team member retirements or client discharges. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A is a better phrasing of the correct answer, emphasizing the importance of variances showing a new trend. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the patient's progress and treatment plan, making them incorrect.
5. When considering virtue ethics, which of the following is true?
- A. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to moral rules.
- B. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to knowledge of consequences.
- C. Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior.
- D. Virtue ethics is a formal statement of rules for behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior. Virtue ethics is a branch of ethical theory that emphasizes an individual's character and virtues rather than focusing on specific rules or consequences. Choice A is incorrect as virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to moral rules; instead, it emphasizes developing virtuous character traits. Choice B is incorrect because virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to knowledge of consequences; it looks at the moral character of the individual. Choice D is incorrect as virtue ethics is not a formal statement of rules for behavior but rather a perspective that emphasizes the importance of developing virtuous character traits.
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