Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

2. In which of the following conditions does a person need to sit, stand, or use multiple pillows when lying down?

• A. Orthopnea
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Eupnea
• D. Apnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Orthopnea. Orthopnea is a medical condition in which a person has difficulty breathing while lying down. To alleviate this difficulty, the person may need to sit, stand, or use multiple pillows. On the other hand, Dyspnea refers to general shortness of breath which is not specifically related to the position of the body. Eupnea is the term for normal, unlabored breathing, and Apnea is a condition characterized by the cessation of breathing. Thus, none of these other choices directly relate to the need to adjust body position or use aids like multiple pillows to breathe comfortably when lying down.

3. On the study “effects of effective nurse-patient communication in decreasing anxiety of post operative patients” What is the Dependent variable?

• A. Effective Nurse-patient communication
• B. Communication
• C. Anxiety level
• D. Post operative patient

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.

4. Which individual would be at the greatest risk for deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins?

• A. An individual who regularly consumes fruits and vegetables.
• B. An individual with a high intake of dairy products.
• C. An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.
• D. An individual who frequently eats organ meats.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.' Processed foods are often deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin C and B vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies. On the other hand, fruits, vegetables, and organ meats are rich sources of these vitamins, so individuals who consume these regularly are less likely to develop deficiencies. While dairy products do contain some water-soluble vitamins, they are not depleted as quickly as they are in a diet high in processed foods, making a deficiency less likely.

5. When conducting assessments for malnutrition, which risk factors should the nurse consider? (SATA)

• A. Dental problems
• B. Depression
• C. Ability to read and write
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for malnutrition, nurses should consider multiple risk factors. Dental problems and depression can impact a person's ability to eat and maintain proper nutrition. The ability to read and write may not directly relate to malnutrition risk. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because dental problems and depression are indeed risk factors, along with other factors like the inability to prepare meals and the loss of a spouse.

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