ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?
- A. Regular Check-ups
- B. Regular Screening
- C. Self-Medication
- D. Immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.
2. Milk and other dairy products are preferred sources of calcium because lactose enhances calcium absorption.
- A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
- B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but are not related.
- C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct.
- D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. Milk and other dairy products are indeed preferred sources of calcium because they supply most of the available calcium. Additionally, lactose present in dairy products enhances calcium absorption, making them even more efficient sources of this essential mineral. The statement correctly identifies dairy products as preferred sources of calcium, and the reason explains how lactose contributes to better calcium absorption. The other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately assess the relationship between lactose, calcium absorption, and the preference for dairy products as sources of calcium.
3. Surgery schedules are communicated to the OR usually a day prior to the procedure by the nurse of the floor or ward where the patient is confined. For orthopedic cases, what department is usually informed to be present in the OR?
- A. Rehabilitation department
- B. Laboratory department
- C. Maintenance department
- D. Radiology department
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
4. When assessing for criteria that signify malnutrition risk, which element would most likely be included as part of the functional assessment data?
- A. severity of illness
- B. presence of pressure sores
- C. localized edema
- D. generalized weakness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Generalized weakness is a key indicator of malnutrition and is often assessed as part of functional status, reflecting muscle wasting and reduced physical function. The other choices, such as severity of illness, presence of pressure sores, and localized edema, are important factors to consider in a clinical assessment but are not primarily indicative of malnutrition risk. Generalized weakness directly relates to the functional impact of malnutrition on physical performance.
5. A patient tells the nurse “I am depressed to talk to you, leave me alone†Which of the following response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
- A. I’ll be back in an hour
- B. Why are you so depressed?
- C. I’ll seat with you for a moment
- D. Call me when you feel like talking to me
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
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