Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

2. When conducting assessments for malnutrition, which risk factors should the nurse consider? (SATA)

• A. Dental problems
• B. Depression
• C. Ability to read and write
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for malnutrition, nurses should consider multiple risk factors. Dental problems and depression can impact a person's ability to eat and maintain proper nutrition. The ability to read and write may not directly relate to malnutrition risk. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because dental problems and depression are indeed risk factors, along with other factors like the inability to prepare meals and the loss of a spouse.

3. What instruction should the nurse include on weight gain during pregnancy?

• A. Failure to obtain the required weight gain during pregnancy will increase the risk of preterm birth.
• B. An obese client needs to gain as much weight as a client with a normal body mass index.
• C. A client with a normal body mass index should plan on gaining 50 pounds.
• D. Clients will need to eat for two when they are pregnant.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Appropriate weight gain is crucial for reducing the risk of preterm birth.

4. Bacterial growth and plaque formation are enhanced by a diet with frequent intake of retentive carbohydrates. Gingivitis is an irreversible change in the interdental papillary tissues.

• A. Both statements are true
• B. Both statements are false
• C. The first statement is true; the second is false
• D. The first statement is false; the second is true

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The first statement is true; retentive carbohydrates promote bacterial growth and plaque formation. However, the second statement is false; gingivitis is not irreversible and is often reversible with proper care. Gingivitis is the inflammation of the gums due to plaque buildup and poor oral hygiene. With good oral hygiene practices and professional dental care, gingivitis can be reversed. The other choices are incorrect because gingivitis is not irreversible, making statement two false.

5. Which consumption pattern of fermentable carbohydrate is considered most cariogenic?

• A. A single exposure to a large quantity
• B. A single exposure to a small quantity
• C. Multiple exposures of small quantities
• D. Multiple exposures followed by chewing sugarless gum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple exposures of small quantities are considered most cariogenic. The total amount of dietary fermentable carbohydrate seems to matter less than the form and frequency in which it is consumed. Having multiple exposures of even small quantities of fermentable carbohydrate throughout the day promotes a highly cariogenic environment in the mouth. Choices A and B, involving single exposures, are less cariogenic as they do not sustain the fermentation process over time. Choice D suggests a beneficial practice by chewing sugarless gum after exposures, which can reduce the risk, making it less cariogenic compared to multiple exposures of small quantities.

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