Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

2. A client has acute dysphagia. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Providing a straw for consumption of liquids
• B. Encouraging larger bites
• C. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position during meals
• D. Instructing the client to tilt head forward when swallowing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position during meals is the correct intervention for a client with acute dysphagia. This position helps prevent aspiration by facilitating swallowing. Providing a straw for consumption of liquids (Choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration and is not recommended for clients with dysphagia. Encouraging larger bites (Choice B) can also increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Instructing the client to tilt the head forward when swallowing (Choice D) is not the recommended technique for managing dysphagia as it does not address the underlying issue effectively.

3. Legally, Patients chart are:

• A. Owned by the government since it is a legal document
• B. Owned by the doctor in charge and should be kept from the administrator for whatever reason
• C. Owned by the hospital and should not be given to anyone who request it other than the doctor in charge
• D. Owned by the patient and should be given by the nurse to the client as requested

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. During which phase of the therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient about the termination of therapy?

• A. Pre-orientation
• B. Orientation
• C. Working
• D. Termination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Termination'. This phase of the therapeutic relationship is when the nurse informs the patient about the conclusion of therapy. It is during this phase that the nurse and the patient review the goals and progress made and also discuss the upcoming termination. The other phases are not the appropriate times for discussing termination. 'Pre-orientation' is the phase before the nurse-patient relationship is established; 'Orientation' is when the nurse and patient get to know each other and set goals; and 'Working' is when these goals are pursued. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid volume excess?

• A. BUN 8 mg/dL
• B. Hgb 15 g/dL
• C. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN level of 8 mg/dL indicates fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) levels can be low in fluid overload due to hemodilution, a common occurrence in heart failure. High levels of BUN usually indicate dehydration or impaired renal function, which are not the case in fluid volume excess. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate fluid volume excess.

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