ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?
- A. Regular Check-ups
- B. Regular Screening
- C. Self-Medication
- D. Immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.
2. When providing discharge teaching to a client prescribed home oxygen therapy, what information should the nurse include?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate during activity
- B. Avoid smoking and open flames near oxygen
- C. Store the oxygen tank in a warm, dry place
- D. Turn off the oxygen when not in use
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid smoking and open flames near oxygen.' This information is crucial to prevent fire hazards when using home oxygen therapy. Smoking and open flames near oxygen can lead to serious accidents. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the oxygen flow rate during activity without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen tanks should be stored in a well-ventilated area, not necessarily warm and dry. Choice D is incorrect as oxygen should not be turned off and on by the client, as it can affect the therapy's effectiveness and cause safety issues.
3. Nurse Ben is reviewing the laboratory results of a client undergoing chemotherapy. Which of the following values would require immediate intervention?
- A. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3
- B. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL
- D. Absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
4. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Take this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Lisinopril is to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, hence the importance of avoiding salt substitutes that may contain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid salt substitutes helps prevent potential adverse effects of increased potassium levels.
5. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Cough
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Clients should be informed to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated with Lisinopril therapy.