Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

2. Which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin?

• A. Oriental cabbage salad with chicken
• B. Beef enchilada, rice, and beans
• C. Ham and cheese sandwich
• D. Macaroni salad and grapefruit slices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meal to remove for a client taking warfarin is the 'Ham and cheese sandwich.' Ham is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, a medication that works by decreasing the clotting ability of the blood. Vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin by promoting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high amounts of vitamin K and are therefore safer options for individuals taking warfarin.

3. Which type of assessment evaluates a person's risk of malnutrition by ranking key variables from the medical history and physical examination?

• A. Katz index
• B. integrated assessment
• C. subjective global assessment
• D. nutrition care plan

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Subjective Global Assessment (SGA) is the correct choice. SGA is a comprehensive tool used to assess an individual's risk of malnutrition by integrating key variables from the medical history, physical examination, and other relevant factors. The Katz index is used to assess activities of daily living, not malnutrition risk. An integrated assessment refers to the overall evaluation process involving multiple assessments. A nutrition care plan is a personalized plan developed based on assessment findings, not the assessment itself.

4. Which set of guidelines is intended to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes of population groups, not individuals?

• A. Old Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)
• B. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
• C. New Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)
• D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is specifically designed to assess nutrient adequacy or plan intakes for population groups, not for individuals. The Old and New Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA) are meant for individuals, not groups, as they provide guidelines for specific nutrient intake levels for healthy individuals. The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is used to set the highest level of nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects for most individuals in a group, which is different from assessing nutrient adequacy for groups.

5. What is considered fast breathing in a 13-month-old child if the respiratory rate (RR) exceeds which value?

• A. 40 breaths per minute
• B. 50 breaths per minute
• C. 60 breaths per minute
• D. 30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a child aged 13 months is considered fast breathing, hence option 'C' is correct. Options 'A', 'B', and 'D' are incorrect as they do not meet the specified criteria for fast breathing in a 13-month-old. Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, including monitoring respiratory rates, to ensure that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

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