which of the following is a form of primary prevention
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Nutrition ATI Test

1. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

2. A patient with renal insufficiency should limit the intake of which of the following nutrients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with renal insufficiency, impaired kidney function can lead to difficulty in excreting phosphorus. High phosphorus levels can result in further complications such as bone and heart problems. Therefore, limiting the intake of phosphorus is crucial. Potassium and sodium restrictions may also be necessary in renal insufficiency, but the primary concern related to nutrients is phosphorus in this scenario. Calcium, while important for bone health, does not typically need to be restricted in renal insufficiency unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

3. Which of the following statements are true about iron?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is correct because iron absorption is indeed increased by Vitamin C and during pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as there are no universally accepted percentages for the iron needs of vegans and endurance athletes. Choice B is inaccurate as iron deficiency is actually one of the most common nutritional deficiencies worldwide. Choice D is incorrect because tannic acid and calcium in milk actually inhibit iron absorption rather than increasing it.

4. Dental hygienists are in a key position to assess and detect signs and symptoms of systemic disease because more than one third of the patients treated in a dental office frequently do not interact with a general health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dental hygienists often see patients more regularly than general healthcare providers, allowing them to identify systemic issues early.

5. Which is the best description of a full-liquid diet?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a full-liquid diet is designed to provide adequate nutrients while being easily digested. Choices A and B are incorrect because a full-liquid diet is not specifically tailored for individuals with an ileostomy or lactose intolerance. Choice C is also incorrect as it describes characteristics that are not defining features of a full-liquid diet.

Similar Questions

Select all that apply. Which nutrients are needed by the body to make hemoglobin?
Generally, patients who wear dentures have reduced masticatory efficiency. Mandibular implant-supported dentures can have positive effects on the clinical aspects of mastication and swallowing.
A client who has dumping syndrome following a hemi-colectomy should avoid which of the following foods when receiving nutritional teaching from a nurse?
She instructed the interviewees not to tell the interviewees that the data gathered are for her own research project for publication. This teacher has violated the student’s right to:
The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses