ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions
1. A client with ulcerative colitis is diagnosed with a mild case of the disease. The nurse doing dietary teaching gives the client examples of foods to eat that represent which of the following therapeutic diets?
- A. High-fat with milk
- B. High-protein without milk
- C. Low-roughage without milk
- D. Low-roughage with milk
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with a mild case of ulcerative colitis is often advised to follow a diet low in roughage and avoid milk. This dietary approach helps reduce the frequency of diarrhea in these clients. Therefore, the correct therapeutic diet for the client with ulcerative colitis in this scenario is a low-roughage diet without milk. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high-fat, high-protein, and low-roughage with milk diets are not typically recommended for clients with ulcerative colitis, especially those with mild cases.
2. Risk factors for the development of hiatal hernias are those that lead to increased abdominal pressure. Which of the following complications DOES NOT cause increased abdominal pressure?
- A. Obesity
- B. Volvulus
- C. Constipation
- D. Intestinal obstruction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obesity, constipation, and intestinal obstruction can all lead to increased abdominal pressure, which in turn can cause a hiatal hernia.
3. Which nursing measure would be most effective in helping the client cough and deep breathe after a cholecystectomy?
- A. Having the client take rapid, shallow breaths to decrease pain.
- B. Having the client lay on the left side while coughing and deep breathing.
- C. Teaching the client to use a folded blanket or pillow to splint the incision.
- D. Withholding pain medication so the client can be alert enough to follow the nurse's instructions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a cholecystectomy, teaching the client to use a folded blanket or pillow to splint the incision will be most effective in helping the client cough and deep breathe. This technique provides support and reduces pain during coughing and deep breathing, promoting better lung expansion. Having the client take rapid, shallow breaths would not be effective in decreasing pain; instead, deep breathing is encouraged to prevent complications like atelectasis. Lying on the left side would limit lung expansion; therefore, the client should be positioned in semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position to maximize lung expansion. Withholding pain medication can lead to discomfort and reluctance to cough and deep breathe, hindering recovery.
4. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?
- A. Flushed, dry skin.
- B. Headache and bradycardia.
- C. Dizziness and sweating.
- D. Dyspnea and chest pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.
5. Which of the following laboratory results would be expected in a client with peritonitis?
- A. Partial thromboplastin time above 100 seconds
- B. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/dL
- C. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
- D. White blood cell count above 15,000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A white blood cell count above 15,000 is indicative of an infection, such as peritonitis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access