Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare provider can use when interacting with clients? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Using Noise
• B. Offering self
• C. Giving advice
• D. Providing reassurance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to promote a therapeutic relationship and client well-being. Using noise is a non-therapeutic technique that can hinder effective communication. Offering self, providing reassurance, and using silence are considered therapeutic. However, giving advice is often seen as non-therapeutic as it can diminish client autonomy and hinder problem-solving skills.

2. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?

• A. I've found that avoiding contact with others helps me cope.
• B. I really enjoy journaling; it's my private time.
• C. I signed up for a yoga class this week.
• D. I made an appointment to meet with a therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is maladaptive and can hinder the development of appropriate coping skills and access to support systems. It may indicate a lack of healthy coping strategies and social connections, which are important for managing stress effectively. Choice B is a positive coping strategy that promotes self-reflection and emotional expression. Choice C reflects a proactive approach to managing stress through physical activity. Choice D shows a willingness to seek professional help, which is a healthy coping mechanism.

3. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

4. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

• A. The client and healthcare provider form a partnership that is challenging for the family to disrupt.
• B. A collaborative approach to treatment planning ensures that both physical and emotional needs will be addressed.
• C. Involving the client in decision-making enhances the feeling of control and fosters cooperation.
• D. Permission for refeeding is crucial as it can have adverse effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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