ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023
1. Which of the following are essential components of strategic planning? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Values
- B. Vision & Mission statements
- C. Reengineering
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Values and vision and mission statements are indeed essential components of strategic planning. Values help define the organization's core beliefs and principles, guiding its decisions and actions. Vision and mission statements articulate the organization's goals, purpose, and direction, serving as a roadmap for strategic planning and decision-making. Reengineering is not a core component of strategic planning; it involves the redesign of processes to improve performance, efficiency, and quality. Therefore, option C is incorrect. The correct answer is D because both values and vision and mission statements play crucial roles in shaping an organization's strategic planning process.
2. What is the primary goal of a root cause analysis (RCA) in healthcare?
- A. To assign blame for errors
- B. To prevent future errors by identifying underlying causes
- C. To improve patient satisfaction
- D. To analyze the financial impact of errors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'To prevent future errors by identifying underlying causes.' Root cause analysis (RCA) in healthcare aims to delve deep into the factors contributing to an error to prevent its recurrence. Choice A is incorrect as RCA focuses on identifying system issues, not blaming individuals. Choice C is incorrect as while improving patient satisfaction may result from the process, it is not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of RCA is not financial analysis but rather improving patient safety.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the client's pain?
- A. Is your pain constant or intermittent?
- B. What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0 to 10?
- C. Does the pain radiate?
- D. Is your pain sharp or dull?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing the quality of pain, asking if the pain is sharp or dull helps the nurse understand the nature of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions like nerve irritation or injury, while dull pain may indicate a more chronic issue like inflammation or tissue damage. Choices A, B, and C focus on different aspects of pain assessment but do not specifically address the quality of pain, making them less relevant in this context.
4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?
- A. Blood pressure screening
- B. Administering medications
- C. Developing a care plan
- D. Providing rehabilitation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.
5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
- B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
- C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
- D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
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