Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are considered part of the operating expenses within health care organizations? (EXCEPT)

• A. Maintenance costs
• B. Rental fees
• C. Renovation costs
• D. Supplies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Operating expenses in health care organizations typically include costs like maintenance, rental fees, and supplies as they are necessary for the day-to-day operations. Renovation costs, on the other hand, are considered capital expenses as they involve significant improvements to facilities rather than routine operational expenses. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A, B, and D are part of operating expenses in health care organizations because they directly contribute to the ongoing operational needs.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who received an IV fluid bolus for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume excess?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Slow capillary refill
• D. Weak, thready pulse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Distended neck veins.' Distended neck veins are a sign of fluid volume excess, indicating an overload of fluids in the body. This can be caused by excessive fluid administration. Hypotension (choice A) is more commonly associated with fluid volume deficit. Slow capillary refill (choice C) and a weak, thready pulse (choice D) are also signs of decreased fluid volume, not fluid volume excess.

3. Which of the following conditions would be well suited to the use of a nursing critical pathway?

• A. Foreign object in the ear
• B. Fever of unknown origin
• C. Hip replacement surgery
• D. Bacterial infection acquired in a foreign country

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A critical pathway is designed to track a patient's progress through a specific timeline, including assessments, interventions, treatments, and outcomes. Hip replacement surgery is well suited for a nursing critical pathway because it has a defined timeline with specific interventions and treatments aimed at achieving optimal functioning. Choices A, B, and D do not typically follow a structured timeline with predetermined interventions and outcomes, making them less suitable for a critical pathway.

4. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

5. The nurse has been teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about managing blood glucose levels and taking glipizide (Glucotrol). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. “If I overeat at a meal, I will still take the usual dose of medication.”
• B. “Other medications besides the Glucotrol may affect my blood sugar.”
• C. “When I am ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar.”
• D. “My diabetes won’t cause complications because I don’t need insulin.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

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