which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019

1. Which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meal to remove for a client taking warfarin is the 'Ham and cheese sandwich.' Ham is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, a medication that works by decreasing the clotting ability of the blood. Vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin by promoting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high amounts of vitamin K and are therefore safer options for individuals taking warfarin.

2. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

3. A child with acetaminophen (Tylenol) poisoning has been admitted to the emergency department. What antidote does the nurse anticipate being prescribed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: N-acetylcysteine is the specific antidote for acetaminophen poisoning, working by replenishing glutathione and preventing liver damage. The other options are antidotes for different types of poisoning (e.g., Fomepizole for methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning).

4. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?

Correct answer: Mantoux skin test

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.

5. According to operant conditioning theory, __________.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: According to operant conditioning theory, the frequency of a behavior can be increased by following it with a wide variety of reinforcers. In operant conditioning, behaviors are shaped through reinforcement, which can be positive (rewarding) or negative (removal of something unpleasant). By providing reinforcement following a behavior, the likelihood of that behavior occurring again in the future is increased. This supports the notion that the frequency of a behavior can be increased by using reinforcers in operant conditioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because operant conditioning focuses on the relationship between behavior and its consequences through reinforcement (positive or negative) to increase the likelihood of the behavior recurring, rather than punishment, cultural influences, or the development of the id based on societal values.

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