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1. Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse�s assessment of the patient?
- A. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL
- B. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
- C. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL
- D. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale:
2. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
3. Which of the following is an essential element of a quality improvement (QI) program?
- A. Blame and punishment
- B. Employee satisfaction
- C. Continual monitoring
- D. Strict adherence to policies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The essential element of a quality improvement (QI) program is continual monitoring. Continual monitoring allows for the ongoing assessment of processes, identification of areas for improvement, and tracking of progress. Option A, 'Blame and punishment,' is incorrect as QI programs focus on systemic issues rather than individual blame. Option B, 'Employee satisfaction,' while important for organizational culture, is not an essential element of QI programs. Option D, 'Strict adherence to policies,' is valuable but not the core essential element, which is continual monitoring to drive improvement.
4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering flu vaccinations
- B. Screening for hypertension
- C. Performing a mastectomy
- D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.
5. A nurse is caring for a client after knee replacement surgery. The nurse discovers that the consent was not signed before the surgery. Which of the following charges could be filed?
- A. False imprisonment
- B. Libel
- C. Battery
- D. Malpractice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Battery. Battery occurs when an individual is touched without consent. Performing surgery without a signed consent constitutes battery as it involves touching the patient's body without proper authorization. False imprisonment (choice A) involves restraining someone against their will, which is not applicable in this scenario. Libel (choice B) refers to written defamation, which is not relevant to the situation described. Malpractice (choice D) involves negligence or incompetence in providing professional services, which is different from the lack of consent issue presented in this case.
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