ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. What is the primary food safety concern for a patient undergoing chemotherapy?
- A. Possible food allergy reactions
- B. Possible food-drug interactions
- C. Possible pesticide residue
- D. Potential risk of foodborne illness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potential risk of foodborne illness. Patients undergoing chemotherapy have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Chemotherapy can reduce the count of white blood cells, which impairs the body's ability to fight off infections from bacteria or other pathogens that might be present in food. Therefore, the prevention of foodborne illnesses is a critical concern for these patients. Choices A, B, and C, while they represent valid concerns for food safety in general, are not the primary concern for patients undergoing chemotherapy. These patients are at a heightened risk of experiencing severe complications from foodborne illnesses, making it a more significant concern than potential food allergies, food-drug interactions, or pesticide residues.
2. Which food is a high source of prebiotics?
- A. Chicken
- B. Garlic
- C. White rice
- D. Cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Garlic is the correct answer. It is high in prebiotics, which are non-digestible fibers that promote the growth of beneficial gut bacteria. Chicken, white rice, and cheese are not significant sources of prebiotics. Chicken is a good source of protein, white rice is a carbohydrate, and cheese is a dairy product, none of which are high in prebiotics.
3. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
4. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the:
- A. Psychological preparation of the client
- B. Physical Preparation of the client
- C. Preparation of the Environment
- D. Preparation of the Equipments
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications places the client at risk for wound dehiscence?
- A. Omeprazole
- B. Zolmitriptan
- C. Prednisone
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can impair wound healing and increase the risk of wound dehiscence. Omeprazole (Choice A) is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production and does not directly impact wound healing. Zolmitriptan (Choice B) is a medication used to treat migraines and does not affect wound healing. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, and it does not pose a significant risk for wound dehiscence.
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