Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most effective in managing a patient with chronic pain?

• A. Administer opioid medications as prescribed.
• B. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.
• C. Encourage the patient to perform range of motion exercises.
• D. Recommend complete bed rest to minimize pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in managing a patient with chronic pain is teaching the patient relaxation techniques. Relaxation techniques can help reduce stress, decrease muscle tension, and improve pain management in patients with chronic pain. Administering opioids as prescribed may have risks of dependence and side effects, making it less favorable as a first-line intervention. Encouraging range of motion exercises can be beneficial, but relaxation techniques directly target stress reduction, a common exacerbating factor in chronic pain. Recommending complete bed rest is generally discouraged in chronic pain management as it can lead to deconditioning and worsen pain over time.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

3. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

4. In a disaster where a building has collapsed, which victim should a nurse attend to first?

• A. A victim who has died of multiple serious injuries
• B. A victim with a partial amputation of a leg who is bleeding profusely
• C. An alert victim who has numerous bruises on the arms and legs
• D. A hysterical victim who has sustained a head injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a disaster situation like a building collapse, the nurse should attend to the victim with a partial amputation of a leg who is bleeding profusely first. This victim is at immediate risk of severe blood loss, which can be life-threatening. It is crucial to address life-threatening injuries like severe bleeding before attending to other less urgent cases. The victim with the amputation requires immediate intervention to control bleeding and stabilize their condition. Victims who are already deceased or have less urgent injuries can be attended to after addressing the critical cases.

5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

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