ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam
1. Which group is least susceptible to insufficient intake of protein?
- A. The elderly
- B. Individuals with low income
- C. Adults participating in endurance exercise
- D. Patients who are chronically ill
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Adults who participate in endurance exercise are typically more aware of their nutritional needs and have higher protein intake compared to other groups. The rationale behind why the other choices are incorrect is as follows: A: The elderly are often at a higher risk of insufficient protein intake due to various factors such as reduced appetite, dental issues, and decreased muscle mass. B: Individuals with low income may struggle to afford protein-rich foods, making them more susceptible to insufficient protein intake. D: Patients who are chronically ill may have specific dietary restrictions or challenges that can lead to inadequate protein consumption.
2. What is the glomerular filtration rate for patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�
- B. Less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m�
- C. Less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m�
- D. Less than 125 mL/min/1.73 m�
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD), also known as end-stage renal disease, the kidney function is significantly compromised. This severe condition is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 15 mL/min/1.73 m�, as correctly stated in choice A. Choices B, C, and D suggest higher GFR values, which are not indicative of stage 5 CKD. Specifically, a GFR of less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m� indicates stage 4 CKD, less than 90 mL/min/1.73 m� signifies stage 3 CKD, and a typical healthy individual usually has a GFR of around 125 mL/min/1.73 m�, which is far above the GFR for stage 5 CKD.
3. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.
- A. genetic determination
- B. metabolic tolerance
- C. chromosomal influence
- D. fetal programming
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.
4. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
5. A client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia should be taught to consume which of the following dietary recommendations?
- A. Yogurt and mozzarella
- B. Spinach and beef
- C. Milk and turkey slices
- D. Fish and cottage cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is spinach and beef. Both spinach and beef are high in iron, making them excellent choices to help combat iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt, mozzarella, milk, turkey slices, fish, and cottage cheese are not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef, so they are not the most suitable dietary recommendations for a client with iron deficiency anemia.
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