ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. Which food is a high source of prebiotics?
- A. Chicken
- B. Garlic
- C. White rice
- D. Cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Garlic is the correct answer. It is high in prebiotics, which are non-digestible fibers that promote the growth of beneficial gut bacteria. Chicken, white rice, and cheese are not significant sources of prebiotics. Chicken is a good source of protein, white rice is a carbohydrate, and cheese is a dairy product, none of which are high in prebiotics.
2. What is the term used to describe a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily interrupted, often referred to as a 'mini-stroke'?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Stroke
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transient ischemic attack (TIA). A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a 'mini-stroke' because it is characterized by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in stroke-like symptoms that typically resolve within a short period. Choice B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow, leading to lasting brain damage. Choices C and D, 'Myocardial infarction' and 'Pulmonary embolism,' are unrelated conditions involving the heart and lungs, respectively, and do not describe a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain.
3. How does hyponatremia place the patient at risk?
- A. Seizures
- B. Fatigue
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia places the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. While hyponatremia can lead to seizures due to cerebral edema caused by fluid imbalance, the most immediate and life-threatening risk is cardiac dysrhythmias. Low sodium levels can disrupt the heart's electrical activity, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias. Although fatigue and muscle weakness are symptoms of hyponatremia, cardiac dysrhythmias pose the most critical concern as they can have severe consequences.
4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
5. At a well-visit, a mother voices concern that her 30-month-old has a smaller vocabulary than other children in his daycare. The nurse should:
- A. Admit the child to the hospital
- B. Assess the child for other age-appropriate development
- C. Suggest that the child is hearing impaired
- D. Explain that the child has a significant developmental delay
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a parent expresses concern about a child's development, it is essential to conduct a comprehensive assessment of all areas of development before jumping to conclusions. Choosing option B allows the nurse to evaluate the child for other age-appropriate developmental milestones to determine if there are any delays or concerns. Admitting the child to the hospital (option A) is not necessary at this point and may cause unnecessary stress. Suggesting hearing impairment (option C) without proper evaluation can lead to misdiagnosis. Explaining a significant developmental delay (option D) should only be done after a thorough assessment and diagnosis.