ATI RN
ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B
1. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient is at risk for falls?
- A. Place the call light within the patient's reach.
- B. Apply a yellow fall risk bracelet to the patient.
- C. Assist the patient when ambulating.
- D. Ensure the patient's room is well-lit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a yellow fall risk bracelet to the patient. This action helps alert staff to the patient's increased risk of falling, prompting them to implement appropriate safety measures and precautions. Placing the call light within reach (choice A) is generally important but does not specifically address fall risk. Assisting the patient when ambulating (choice C) is important but may not be sufficient alone to prevent falls. Ensuring the patient's room is well-lit (choice D) is also crucial for patient safety but does not directly address the patient's fall risk status.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates the client might be experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Distended neck veins
- C. Chills and fever
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chills and fever are classic signs of an acute hemolytic reaction, where the body is reacting to the transfused blood. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Low back pain, distended neck veins, and headache are not typical signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Low back pain may be associated with kidney issues, distended neck veins with fluid overload or heart failure, and headache with various causes such as stress, dehydration, or migraines.
3. A healthcare provider gives a verbal order for a medication. The nurse is uncomfortable with the order and questions its appropriateness. What should the nurse do?
- A. Refuse to administer the medication and document the refusal.
- B. Clarify the order with the provider before proceeding.
- C. Administer the medication and monitor the patient.
- D. Call a pharmacy consult to discuss the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when uncomfortable with a verbal order for medication is to clarify the order with the provider before proceeding. This ensures patient safety by confirming the appropriateness of the order and prevents any potential harm. Choice A is incorrect because refusing to administer the medication without clarification may delay necessary treatment for the patient. Choice C is incorrect as administering the medication without clarification could pose risks if the order is indeed inappropriate. Choice D is also incorrect as the first step should be direct clarification with the provider before involving others.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Improvement in visual acuity
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight loss of 1.36 kg (3 lb) in 24 hours
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.
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