which action by the nurse will help prevent ventilator associated pneumonia vap in a patient on mechanical ventilation
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. Which action by the nurse will help prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in a patient on mechanical ventilation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Providing oral care every 4 hours helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia by reducing the buildup of bacteria in the mouth that can be aspirated into the lungs. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing VAP. Suctioning the patient as needed is essential for maintaining airway patency but does not specifically prevent VAP. Administering antibiotics as prescribed is a treatment for infections but does not prevent VAP.

2. Which patient should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with oxygen and a lighter on the bedside table is at immediate risk of fire. Oxygen promotes combustion, and having a lighter nearby poses a serious safety hazard. This situation requires urgent attention to prevent a potential disaster. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening risks compared to the patient with oxygen and a lighter nearby.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.

4. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to prevent seizures and manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging physical activity may not be safe during acute withdrawal as the client may be at risk for seizures and other complications. Monitoring for signs of dehydration is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in acute alcohol withdrawal. While encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is beneficial for therapeutic communication, it is not the priority intervention when managing acute alcohol withdrawal.

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