which action by the nurse will help prevent ventilator associated pneumonia vap in a patient on mechanical ventilation
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Comprehensive Assessment B

1. Which action by the nurse will help prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in a patient on mechanical ventilation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Providing oral care every 4 hours helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia by reducing the buildup of bacteria in the mouth that can be aspirated into the lungs. Repositioning the patient every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing VAP. Suctioning the patient as needed is essential for maintaining airway patency but does not specifically prevent VAP. Administering antibiotics as prescribed is a treatment for infections but does not prevent VAP.

2. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Emailing client information through an unencrypted server is a HIPAA violation because it can lead to data breaches. Choices A, B, and C do not violate HIPAA. Posting the name of the nurse providing care on a client's communication board does not disclose sensitive health information. Discussing the client's new medication with a hospital pharmacist is a routine healthcare practice. Faxing requested medical information for a client who is transferring to another facility is a secure way to transmit healthcare data.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.

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