Nursing Elites

1. Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

• A. Mouth
• B. Esophagus
• C. Stomach
• D. Small intestine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth. The enzyme amylase, found in saliva, starts the process by breaking down starches into sugars. The esophagus is a passageway for food to reach the stomach and does not participate in digestion. The stomach mainly digests proteins and is not the primary site for carbohydrate breakdown. While the small intestine does play a crucial role in digesting carbohydrates, it is not where the process initiates. Therefore, the correct answer is the mouth.

2. A client scheduled for hysterosalpingography needs health teaching before the procedure. The nurse is correct in telling the patient that:

• A. She needs to void prior to the procedure
• B. A full bladder is needed prior to the procedure
• C. Painful sensation is felt as the needle is inserted
• D. Flushing sensation is felt as the dye in injected

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. What is the best dietary advice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?

• A. Increase dairy consumption
• B. Increase vitamin C intake
• C. Reduce red meat consumption
• D. Increase fiber intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best dietary advice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia is to increase vitamin C intake. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of non-heme iron, which can help improve iron-deficiency anemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for this condition. Increasing dairy consumption (Choice A) may not directly address the iron deficiency. Reducing red meat consumption (Choice C) may limit heme iron intake, which is easily absorbed by the body. Increasing fiber intake (Choice D) is generally beneficial but is not specifically recommended as the top advice for iron-deficiency anemia.

4. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

5. High blood pressure is defined as systolic and diastolic measurements greater than or equal to:

• A. 140 mm Hg and 90 mm Hg, respectively
• B. 150 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg, respectively
• C. 160 mm Hg and 110 mm Hg, respectively
• D. 180 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg, respectively

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High blood pressure, or hypertension, is typically defined as having a systolic pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher and/or a diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests a higher systolic measurement than the standard definition. Choice C is incorrect as it provides an even higher systolic measurement and a much higher diastolic measurement. Choice D is also incorrect as it suggests extremely elevated blood pressure values, well above the typical definition of hypertension.

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