ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?
- A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
- B. After one month of employment
- C. After three months of employment
- D. After a certain tenure period
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?
- A. Goals should be vague
- B. Goals should be unrealistic
- C. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable
- D. Goals should be easy to achieve
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable. Well-written goals should be specific and quantifiable to provide clear direction and motivation. Choice A is incorrect as goals should not be vague but rather specific. Choice B is incorrect as goals should be realistic to be attainable. Choice D is incorrect as goals should challenge individuals and not be too easy to achieve to promote growth and development.
3. After her evaluation, a staff nurse exclaims: 'I'm not sure if my manager knows much about my performance, really. He only had three specific examples to give me, two good performance examples and one to work on, and they all happened in the last month. I don't feel like he can see the whole picture.' What kind of performance appraisal rating does this statement exemplify?
- A. Recency error
- B. Leniency error
- C. Halo error
- D. Absolute judgment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The statement exemplifies a recency error. Recency error occurs when a manager assesses an employee's performance primarily based on recent events, rather than considering the entire evaluation period. In this case, the staff nurse feels that her manager focused only on recent examples, leading to an incomplete assessment of her overall performance. Choice B, Leniency error, refers to a rater consistently giving high ratings to all employees regardless of performance, which is not evident in this scenario. Choice C, Halo error, involves allowing one positive attribute of an individual to overshadow other characteristics during appraisal, which is not the case here. Absolute judgment, Choice D, is when a rater evaluates an employee without reference to any specific criteria, which is not reflected in the staff nurse's feedback.
4. A 54-year-old patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which admission order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Infuse 1 liter of normal saline per hour.
- B. Give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV push.
- C. Administer regular insulin 10 U by IV push.
- D. Start a regular insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis, the initial priority is to address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Infusing 1 liter of normal saline per hour helps correct hypovolemia and restore electrolyte balance, making it the first essential step in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Sodium bicarbonate is not routinely recommended in treating diabetic ketoacidosis and should not be given routinely as it may worsen the acidosis. Administering regular insulin and starting an insulin infusion are important but should come after fluid resuscitation to stabilize the patient's condition.
5. What is the main purpose of the NCLEX examination?
- A. Ensure that individuals have passed nursing classes.
- B. Provide assurance that nursing schools are part of the service agency.
- C. Enable potential students to determine the best nursing schools.
- D. Ensure the safety of the public.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The main purpose of the NCLEX examination is to ensure the safety of the public by determining if candidates have the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective nursing care. Choice A is incorrect as the exam evaluates if individuals are ready to begin nursing practice, not just passed classes. Choice B is incorrect as the exam is not related to the affiliation of nursing schools with service agencies. Choice C is incorrect as the exam is not designed to help potential students choose the best nursing schools, but rather to assess individual readiness for nursing practice to protect public safety.
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