when is the managers first opportunity to reduce turnover
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. When a client with a terminal diagnosis asks about advance directives, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct response as it demonstrates active listening and empathy by engaging the client in a discussion about their concerns regarding advance directives. It also recognizes the importance of involving the client's partner in such discussions, promoting shared decision-making and support. Choices B and C lack the personalized approach needed in this situation and do not address the client's immediate request for information. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the client's expressed need to discuss advance directives and focuses solely on their current feelings, delaying a crucial conversation.

3. How can a staff nurse recognize they are experiencing burnout? (EXCEPT)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recognizing burnout is essential to maintaining quality patient care. Spending more time talking to staff on other units is a common practice and does not necessarily indicate burnout. On the other hand, staff questioning their clinical judgment, sleeping longer hours or coming in late to work, and resorting to alcohol to relax are signs of burnout. These behaviors can impact patient care and indicate the professional is struggling to cope with stressors.

4. Which of the following is an essential element of a quality improvement (QI) program?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential element of a quality improvement (QI) program is continual monitoring. Continual monitoring allows for the ongoing assessment of processes, identification of areas for improvement, and tracking of progress. Option A, 'Blame and punishment,' is incorrect as QI programs focus on systemic issues rather than individual blame. Option B, 'Employee satisfaction,' while important for organizational culture, is not an essential element of QI programs. Option D, 'Strict adherence to policies,' is valuable but not the core essential element, which is continual monitoring to drive improvement.

5. Which of the following is the correct definition of 'chain of command'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct definition of 'chain of command' is the hierarchy of authority and responsibility. This term refers to the order in which authority and power in an organization are wielded and delegated from top management to every employee at every level. Choice B, 'Relationship without authority,' is incorrect because the chain of command specifically involves authority and responsibility. Choice C, 'Activity directed through linear authority,' is not a precise definition of the chain of command, as it does not encompass the full scope of authority and hierarchy. Choice D, 'The tendency for people to perform as expected,' is unrelated to the concept of the chain of command.

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