Nursing Elites

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals the following advantages: (Select all that apply.)

• A. Greater client satisfaction.
• B. Improved nursing recruitment.
• C. Greater client workload.
• D. Nurses who are independent decision makers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Achieving Magnet Hospital designation offers hospitals advantages such as improved nursing recruitment and greater nursing retention. The empowered, independent problem-solving nurses resulting from this designation contribute to greater client satisfaction and improved nursing care. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Greater client workload' (C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although they are beneficial outcomes of achieving Magnet Hospital designation, they are not advantages specifically mentioned in the provided rationale.

3. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has rubella. Which of the following types of transmission-based precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Protective environment
• C. Contact
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Protective environment.' Rubella requires placing the client in a protective environment due to its airborne precautions. Airborne precautions are typically used for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets that remain in the air for an extended period, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA. Droplet precautions are implemented for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza. Therefore, in the case of rubella, airborne precautions in a protective environment are necessary.

4. What is the main purpose of health informatics?

• A. To manage patient care
• B. To store patient records
• C. To enhance clinical decision making
• D. To improve healthcare policies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of health informatics is to enhance clinical decision making. While managing patient care (choice A) and storing patient records (choice B) are important functions within health informatics, the primary goal is to improve decision making processes by utilizing technology and data. Improving healthcare policies (choice D) is not the main purpose of health informatics, although it can be a byproduct of better-informed decision making.

5. Which of the following best describes the ethical concept of values?

• A. Values are an individual’s feelings about situations.
• B. Values are learned through family systems.
• C. Values are organized ways of thinking about the meaning of life.
• D. Values determine the rightness or wrongness of behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Values are organized ways of thinking about the meaning of life.

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