Nursing Elites

1. When is the first opportunity for a manager to reduce turnover?

• A. When the decision to hire a new employee is made
• B. After one month of employment
• C. After three months of employment
• D. After a certain tenure period

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The manager's first opportunity to reduce turnover occurs after three months of employment. During this period, the manager can assess the employee's performance, engagement, and fit within the organization. It allows the manager to address any concerns, provide support, and intervene early to prevent turnover. Waiting until after a certain tenure period might be too late to effectively mitigate turnover risk, as issues could have already escalated. Therefore, the three-month mark is a critical point for managers to proactively manage turnover. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for the manager to evaluate the employee and take proactive measures to reduce turnover. Choice D is incorrect as it is too vague and does not provide a specific actionable timeframe for addressing turnover concerns.

2. In the grievance process, a nurse disagrees with statements made by a physician about performance and talks to the nurse manager. Which step in the process is this?

• A. First
• B. Second
• C. Third
• D. Fourth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First. In the grievance process, the initial step involves the nurse talking to the nurse manager to address the issue informally. Subsequently, step two entails filing a written appeal to the director of nursing or designee. Step three involves a formal meeting with the employee, agent, grievance chairperson, nursing administrator, and director of human resources. The final step, step four, is arbitration, which is initiated when no mutually acceptable solutions can be reached by the involved parties. Therefore, the nurse talking to the nurse manager about the disagreement is the first step in the grievance process.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse preceptor?

• A. Supervisor of all nursing staff
• B. Mentor and educator for new nurses
• C. Director of nursing services
• D. Coordinator of patient care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Mentor and educator for new nurses.' A nurse preceptor plays a crucial role in mentoring and educating new nurses. They provide guidance, support, and practical knowledge to help new nurses transition smoothly into their roles. While preceptors may have supervisory responsibilities during the orientation period, their primary focus is on supporting the professional development of new nurses, rather than supervising all nursing staff, directing nursing services, or coordinating patient care. Choice A is incorrect because a nurse preceptor does not supervise all nursing staff but focuses on new nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the role of a director of nursing services involves overall management and leadership of nursing services. Choice D is incorrect as a coordinator of patient care is responsible for organizing patient care activities, not specifically focused on mentoring new nurses.

4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention activity?

• A. Blood pressure screening
• B. Administering medications
• C. Developing a care plan
• D. Providing rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, blood pressure screening. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat conditions early to prevent their progression. Blood pressure screening helps in early detection of hypertension, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of secondary prevention activities. Administering medications (B) can be part of treatment after a condition is diagnosed, developing a care plan (C) is more related to organizing and coordinating care rather than prevention, and providing rehabilitation (D) focuses on recovery and improvement post-diagnosis rather than early detection and prevention.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?

• A. Goals should be vague
• B. Goals should be unrealistic
• C. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable
• D. Goals should be easy to achieve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable. Well-written goals should be specific and quantifiable to provide clear direction and motivation. Choice A is incorrect as goals should not be vague but rather specific. Choice B is incorrect as goals should be realistic to be attainable. Choice D is incorrect as goals should challenge individuals and not be too easy to achieve to promote growth and development.

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