ATI RN
ATI Fluid and Electrolytes
1. When does dehydration begin to occur?
- A. the body reduces fluid output to zero.
- B. the body increases the release of ANH.
- C. the salivary secretions decrease.
- D. the salivary secretions increase.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dehydration leads to a decrease in the body's fluid levels, causing the salivary glands to produce less saliva, resulting in a dry mouth. Therefore, when dehydration begins to occur, salivary secretions decrease. Choice A is incorrect because the body does not reduce fluid output to zero during dehydration; it tries to conserve fluids. Choice B is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase the release of ANH (Atrial Natriuretic Hormone). Choice D is incorrect because salivary secretions do not increase but decrease during dehydration.
2. Which negative ion is most important in intracellular fluid?
- A. Phosphate ions.
- B. Protein molecules.
- C. Chlorine.
- D. Phosphate ions and protein molecules.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intracellular fluid contains phosphate ions and protein molecules as essential anions. Phosphate ions play a crucial role in various cellular processes, including energy transfer. Proteins, being large molecules with negative charges, also contribute significantly to the negative ion concentration within cells. Chlorine is primarily an extracellular anion and is not as prominent as phosphate ions and proteins within intracellular fluid, making it a less important negative ion in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is D because both phosphate ions and protein molecules are crucial negative ions in intracellular fluid.
3. A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.34, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, and HCO3 19 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse perform first?
- A. . Cardiac rate and rhythm
- B. Skin and mucous membranes
- C. Musculoskeletal strength
- D. Level of orientation
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
4. A nurse admitting a patient with a history of emphysema reviews her past lab reports and notes that the patient's PaCO2 has been 56 to 64 mmHg. The nurse will be cautious administering oxygen because:
- A. The patient's calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation.
- B. The oxygen will increase the patient's intracranial pressure and create confusion.
- C. The oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic.
- D. Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When PaCO2 chronically exceeds 50 mm Hg, it creates insensitivity to CO2 in the respiratory medulla, and the use of oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia. Choice A is incorrect because administering oxygen does not lead to a dramatic rise in calcium due to pituitary stimulation. Choice B is incorrect because administering oxygen does not directly increase intracranial pressure or create confusion. Choice C is incorrect because administering oxygen to a patient with emphysema and high PaCO2 levels is more likely to cause respiratory depression than hyperventilation and acidosis.
5. When preparing a site for the insertion of an IV catheter, how should excess hair at the site be treated?
- A. Leaving the hair intact
- B. Shaving the area
- C. Clipping the hair in the area
- D. Removing the hair with a depilatory
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to clip the hair in the area. Excess hair at the site of IV catheter insertion should be removed because it can be a potential source of infection. Clipping the hair is preferred over shaving because shaving can cause skin abrasions, increasing the risk of infection. Using depilatories is not recommended as they can irritate the skin, which is undesirable when preparing a clean site for an invasive procedure. Therefore, clipping the hair in the area is the most appropriate and safe method to prepare the site for IV catheter insertion.
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