ATI RN
ATI Fluid and Electrolytes
1. When does dehydration begin to occur?
- A. the body reduces fluid output to zero.
- B. the body increases the release of ANH.
- C. the salivary secretions decrease.
- D. the salivary secretions increase.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dehydration leads to a decrease in the body's fluid levels, causing the salivary glands to produce less saliva, resulting in a dry mouth. Therefore, when dehydration begins to occur, salivary secretions decrease. Choice A is incorrect because the body does not reduce fluid output to zero during dehydration; it tries to conserve fluids. Choice B is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase the release of ANH (Atrial Natriuretic Hormone). Choice D is incorrect because salivary secretions do not increase but decrease during dehydration.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Assess the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium.
- B. Assess the client's neuromuscular status.
- C. Assess the client's fluid intake and output.
- D. Read food labels to determine sodium content.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to read food labels to determine sodium content. The client's sodium level is crucial to monitor as it is on the higher side (144 mEq/L), which can indicate hypernatremia. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and other complications. Assessing dietary sodium intake can help the nurse and client make necessary adjustments to prevent further sodium imbalances. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as the client's sodium level needs immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
3. A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L
- C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/L
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
4. The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a patient who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the patient have that could cause inadequate ventilation?
- A. Endocarditis
- B. Multiple myeloma
- C. Guillain-Barr syndrome
- D. Overdose of amphetamines
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
5. While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?
- A. Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning
- B. Client who is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
- C. Client in a motor vehicle crash who is receiving 6 units of packed red blood cells
- D. Client with uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous nasogastric suctioning can lead to hypokalemia due to the loss of gastric contents rich in potassium. Therefore, a client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning is at risk for hypokalemia. Option B is incorrect because ACE inhibitors may lead to hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Option C is incorrect as receiving packed red blood cells can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in the blood product. Option D is incorrect because a serum pH level of 7.33 indicates acidosis, which is not directly associated with hypokalemia.
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