ATI RN
ATI Proctored Leadership Exam
1. What is the primary focus of strategic planning in healthcare organizations?
- A. Financial performance
- B. Staff satisfaction
- C. Patient care quality
- D. Regulatory compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In healthcare organizations, the primary focus of strategic planning is to enhance patient care quality. While financial performance, staff satisfaction, and regulatory compliance are essential aspects in healthcare management, they are secondary to the overarching goal of providing high-quality care to patients. Financial performance ensures sustainability, staff satisfaction impacts productivity and retention, and regulatory compliance maintains legal standards. However, without a core focus on improving patient care quality, the strategic planning efforts may not align with the primary mission of healthcare organizations.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints.
- B. Evaluate the client's circulation every 8 hours after application.
- C. Secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails.
- D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours to evaluate the client's status.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.
3. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?
- A. Hours of care provided
- B. Ancillary staff
- C. Procedures to be done
- D. Types of patients
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
4. A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true?
- A. Upon graduation from nursing school, she cannot use the title RN.
- B. Because the NCLEX is a national examination, her RN license will allow her to practice in all states and territories of the United States.
- C. If her home state participates in the compact agreement, she may practice in other states participating in the agreement, but should renew her license in her home state.
- D. The RN license is a mandatory license.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is correct because if the nurse's home state participates in the compact agreement, she can practice in other states that are part of the agreement, but she must still renew her license in her home state. This is necessary to maintain an active license in her home state. Choice A is incorrect because upon graduation, the nurse can use the title RN if licensed, but it's not automatic. Choice B is incorrect because while the NCLEX is a national exam, the nurse needs to meet individual state requirements for licensure in each state. Choice D is incorrect because an RN license is not permissive but rather a mandatory license to practice nursing.
5. When a client is receiving pain medication through a PCA pump, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Educate the family not to push the button for the client while the client is asleep.
- B. Explain to the client that vital signs will be monitored regularly due to being on a PCA pump.
- C. Instruct the client to push the button only when pain is above a 7 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- D. Adjust the basal rate and decrease the lock-out interval time if the client's pain level is too high.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving pain medication through a PCA pump, it is essential to adjust the settings if their pain level is not adequately controlled. Increasing the basal rate and shortening the lock-out interval time can help manage the client's pain more effectively. This adjustment should be made by the healthcare provider based on the client's pain assessment and response to the current settings. It is crucial to individualize the PCA pump settings to optimize pain management for each client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because educating the family not to push the button, explaining vital sign monitoring, and setting a specific pain level for button pushing are not direct actions the nurse should take to adjust the PCA pump settings for effective pain management.
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