Nursing Elites

1. What is the main purpose of a clinical audit?

• A. To measure patient satisfaction
• B. To evaluate the effectiveness of clinical practices
• C. To identify areas for improvement
• D. To standardize patient care protocols

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practices. While patient satisfaction might be a component evaluated during an audit, the primary goal is to ensure that care is safe, effective, and patient-centered, rather than solely focusing on satisfaction. Evaluating the effectiveness of clinical practices is a related but more specific goal compared to the broader aim of identifying areas for improvement. Standardizing patient care protocols can be a result of a clinical audit, but it is not the main purpose, which is to pinpoint areas needing enhancement.

2. When considering virtue ethics, which of the following is true?

• A. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to moral rules.
• B. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to knowledge of consequences.
• C. Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior.
• D. Virtue ethics is a formal statement of rules for behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior. Virtue ethics is a branch of ethical theory that emphasizes an individual's character and virtues rather than focusing on specific rules or consequences. Choice A is incorrect as virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to moral rules; instead, it emphasizes developing virtuous character traits. Choice B is incorrect because virtue ethics does not attribute behaviors to knowledge of consequences; it looks at the moral character of the individual. Choice D is incorrect as virtue ethics is not a formal statement of rules for behavior but rather a perspective that emphasizes the importance of developing virtuous character traits.

3. What is the role of the Joint Commission in healthcare?

• A. Advocacy for patients
• B. Setting standards for patient care
• C. Providing direct patient care
• D. Approving healthcare facilities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Approving healthcare facilities.' The Joint Commission's primary role is to accredit and certify healthcare organizations and programs in the United States. This accreditation ensures that healthcare facilities meet specific quality and safety standards. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Joint Commission focuses on evaluating and accrediting healthcare facilities rather than advocating for patients, providing direct care, or setting standards for patient care.

4. A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?

• A. Perceived conflict
• B. Disruptive conflict
• C. Competitive conflict
• D. Felt conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Disruptive conflict.' In disruptive conflict, the parties involved are engaged in activities to reduce, defeat, or eliminate the opponent. In this scenario, the resident and the nurse are engaging in behaviors that disrupt their professional relationship by intentionally ignoring pages and making excessive retaliatory calls. Perceived conflict refers to a situation where one or more parties believe that a conflict exists, competitive conflict involves striving to achieve personal goals at the expense of others, and felt conflict refers to the emotional involvement in a conflict situation.

5. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)?

• A. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas.
• B. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas.
• C. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low.
• D. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. Glyburide belongs to the sulfonylurea class of antidiabetic medications, which work by stimulating the pancreas to produce and release more insulin. This helps to lower blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because glyburide does not decrease glucagon secretion; instead, it acts on insulin. Choice C is incorrect because taking glyburide when blood glucose is low can lead to hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between glyburide and IV contrast media that requires avoiding its use for 48 hours.

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