ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam
1. The nurse manager is responsible for implementing a new electronic health record (EHR) system. What is the first step in this process?
- A. Train all staff on the new system
- B. Identify the project team
- C. Develop a training program
- D. Conduct a needs assessment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in implementing a new electronic health record (EHR) system is to identify the project team. This team will be crucial in overseeing the entire implementation process, including tasks like developing a training program (Choice C) and conducting a needs assessment (Choice D). Training all staff on the new system (Choice A) is an important step but typically occurs after the project team has been identified to ensure a smooth and efficient implementation.
2. Which response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system? Select the incorrect one.
- A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
- B. Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder.
- C. It's critical to inform your healthcare provider immediately if you are experiencing sleep disturbances.
- D. Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing bipolar disorder, it is vital to educate the patient and their support system about triggers like alcohol and caffeine, the significance of good sleep, and the need for family involvement. However, the statement in choice B is incorrect. While antidepressants need to be carefully monitored in bipolar disorder, they can be used in conjunction with mood stabilizers to manage depression in some cases.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. aPTT of 38 seconds
- B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
- C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
- D. INR of 1.0
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.
4. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Profound diaphoresis
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Flu-like symptoms
- D. Cyanosis and pallor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.
5. Your goal is to minimize David’s risk of complications after a heriorrhaphy. You instruct the patient to:
- A. Avoid the use of pain medication.
- B. Cough and deep breathe Q2H.
- C. Splint the incision if he can’t avoid sneezing or coughing.
- D. Apply heat to scrotal swelling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instruct the patient to splint the incision if he can't avoid sneezing or coughing to minimize the risk of complications after heriorrhaphy.
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