Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

2. A client is starting therapy with a statin medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase intake of dietary fiber.
• D. Take the medication in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice when taking statin medication. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice A) or in the morning (Choice D) is not specifically necessary for statins. While increasing dietary fiber intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for health, it is not a specific instruction related to taking statin medication.

3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Digoxin
• C. Aspirin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 62/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within normal limits and are not indicative of a potentially life-threatening complication associated with morphine therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?

• A. Fetal head compression
• B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
• C. Umbilical cord compression
• D. Fetal hypoxia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.

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