a nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

2. A client who is postoperative following a colon resection reports pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of morphine is the most appropriate action to manage postoperative pain in a client following a colon resection. Morphine is a potent analgesic commonly used to relieve moderate to severe pain, especially in postoperative settings. While assisting the client to change positions in bed, encouraging relaxation techniques, and offering a back massage can provide comfort and support, they may not be sufficient in managing the pain following a major surgical procedure like a colon resection. Therefore, the priority intervention for acute postoperative pain control in this scenario is to administer medication like morphine.

3. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.

5. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.

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