a nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

2. What is the initial action a healthcare provider should take when a patient presents with chest pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action when a patient presents with chest pain is to obtain an ECG. This helps assess the heart's electrical activity and determine the cause of chest pain. Administering aspirin or oxygen therapy may be necessary later based on the ECG findings, but obtaining an ECG is the priority to evaluate the cardiac status. Surgery preparation is not the initial action for chest pain and should only be considered after a thorough assessment.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy, chest pain is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. Chest pain can indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism, which require prompt intervention. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not typical signs of immediate concern following an arterial thrombectomy. Incisional pain is expected postoperatively and may not warrant immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the excretion of potassium. Choice A, administering sodium bicarbonate, is incorrect as it is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering calcium gluconate, is incorrect as it is used to treat hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Choice D, administering calcium carbonate, is incorrect as it is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and indigestion, not hyperkalemia.

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