HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The patient has the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility related to pain in the left shoulder. Which priority action will the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the patient to engage in self-care.
- B. Promote mobility in the patient.
- C. Encourage the patient to perform range of motion exercises.
- D. Assist the patient with comfort measures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action for a patient with Impaired physical mobility related to pain is to assist the patient with comfort measures. By addressing pain through comfort measures, the patient will be more willing and able to move. Encouraging self-care (Choice A) may be important but addressing pain first is crucial in improving mobility. Promoting mobility (Choice B) and encouraging range of motion exercises (Choice C) are important but addressing the pain and providing comfort measures take precedence to improve the patient's physical mobility.
2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Nasal congestion
- B. Cough
- C. Sore throat
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Oxygen toxicity can manifest with symptoms like a sore throat, cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and fatigue. However, a sore throat can be an early indicator of oxygen toxicity and should prompt immediate attention. Nasal congestion, cough, and fatigue are not specific indicators of oxygen toxicity but could be related to other factors in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy.
3. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. How should the nurse prevent the spread of infection?
- A. Place a client with TB in a negative pressure room.
- B. Use standard precautions only.
- C. Place a client with TB in a private room.
- D. Use barrier precautions only.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a client with TB in a negative pressure room. Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne infectious disease, and placing the client in a negative pressure room helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing and filtering the air within the room. Standard precautions (Choice B) are important for preventing the spread of infection in general, but specific precautions are needed for airborne diseases like TB. Placing the client in a private room (Choice C) may not provide adequate ventilation and containment of airborne pathogens. Using barrier precautions (Choice D) alone is not sufficient for preventing the airborne transmission of TB.
4. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
- B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
- C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
- D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.
5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
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