Nursing Elites

1. What is the best indicator of fluid balance in a pediatric patient?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Weight
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance in pediatric patients. Changes in weight reflect shifts in body fluid levels more directly compared to other parameters. Blood pressure and heart rate may be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. While urine output is important in assessing renal function, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance in pediatric patients.

2. A child who has just had definitive repair of a high rectal malformation is to be discharged. What should the nurse address in the discharge preparation of this family?

• A. Safe administration of daily enemas
• B. Necessity of firm stools to keep suture line clean
• C. Bowel training beginning as soon as the child returns home
• D. Changes in stooling patterns to report to the practitioner

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative care should focus on monitoring changes in stooling patterns, which could indicate complications such as stenosis or obstruction. It is crucial to educate the family on the importance of promptly reporting any changes in stooling patterns to the healthcare provider. Options A and B are not recommended unless specifically ordered by the physician as they can potentially cause harm or discomfort postoperatively. Option C may not be appropriate immediately after surgery and should be guided by the healthcare provider's recommendations.

3. In assessing sexual maturity levels, which tool would you expect to use?

• A. Denver II Developmental Screening
• B. Tanner staging
• C. Antibody testing
• D. Nursing process

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tanner staging. Tanner staging is a tool specifically used to assess sexual maturity in adolescents based on the development of secondary sexual characteristics. The Tanner scale ranges from stage 1 (prepubertal) to stage 5 (adult maturity). This tool helps healthcare providers evaluate the physical development and sexual maturation of individuals. Choice A, the Denver II Developmental Screening, is used to assess developmental milestones in children. Choice C, antibody testing, is a diagnostic tool used to detect the presence of specific antibodies in the blood. Choice D, the nursing process, is a systematic method that nurses use to deliver patient-centered care, involving assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

4. What is the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease?

• A. Corticosteroids
• B. Intravenous immunoglobulin
• C. Antibiotics
• D. Antivirals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). IVIG is the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease, an acute vasculitis that mainly affects children under 5 years old. Early administration of IVIG is crucial as it helps reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms, which is the most serious complication of Kawasaki disease. Corticosteroids (Choice A) are not the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease and are not recommended due to potential adverse effects. Antibiotics (Choice C) are not indicated for the treatment of Kawasaki disease as it is not caused by a bacterial infection. Antivirals (Choice D) are also not part of the standard treatment for Kawasaki disease, as it is not caused by a viral infection.

5. A nurse must do a venipuncture on a 6-year-old child. What consideration is important in providing atraumatic care?

• A. Use an 18-gauge needle if possible.
• B. Show the child the equipment to be used before the procedure.
• C. If not successful after four attempts, have another nurse try.
• D. Restrain the child completely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Showing the child the equipment before the procedure helps build trust and reduces fear. Using an 18-gauge needle is too large for a child, and multiple attempts can increase trauma. Restraining completely can increase fear and anxiety.

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