Nursing Elites

1. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease?

• A. Low protein diet
• B. High protein diet
• C. Low sodium diet
• D. High sodium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease is a low protein diet. In liver disease, the liver may have difficulty processing protein, leading to the accumulation of toxins like ammonia in the body. A low protein diet helps reduce the burden on the liver and minimizes the production of these harmful substances. High protein diets can exacerbate the condition by increasing the workload on the liver. A low sodium diet (Choice C) is also important for liver disease patients as excess sodium can contribute to fluid retention and swelling, but reducing protein intake is the primary focus in these cases.

2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons?

• A. Respect the patient's beliefs
• B. Educate the patient on the importance of the transfusion
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Persuade the patient to accept the transfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons, the healthcare provider should respect the patient's beliefs. It is crucial to uphold the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care, even if the provider disagrees. Educating the patient on the importance of the transfusion may be appropriate in some cases, but the initial response should always be to respect the patient's decision. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the decision lies with the patient. Persuading the patient to accept the transfusion goes against the principle of respecting the patient's autonomy and beliefs.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Platelet count
• C. INR
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Administer bronchodilators
• D. Reposition the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

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