what is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic liver disease is a low protein diet. In liver disease, the liver may have difficulty processing protein, leading to the accumulation of toxins like ammonia in the body. A low protein diet helps reduce the burden on the liver and minimizes the production of these harmful substances. High protein diets can exacerbate the condition by increasing the workload on the liver. A low sodium diet (Choice C) is also important for liver disease patients as excess sodium can contribute to fluid retention and swelling, but reducing protein intake is the primary focus in these cases.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.

3. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

5. A nurse is caring for an adult client who has prescriptions for multiple medications. Which of the following is an age-related change that increases the risk for adverse effects from these medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prolonged medication half-life. As clients age, their metabolism tends to slow down, leading to a prolonged half-life of medications in the body. This extended presence of drugs can increase the risk for adverse effects as the substances accumulate. Choice A, rapid gastric emptying, is not an age-related change and actually decreases the time medications spend in the stomach, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Choice C, increased medication elimination, is not an age-related change either; in fact, aging can lead to decreased renal function, affecting drug elimination. Choice D, decreased medication sensitivity, is not an age-related change that directly increases the risk for adverse effects; rather, it may lead to requiring higher doses for effectiveness but does not inherently increase the risk of adverse effects.

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