Nursing Elites

1. What findings on physical assessment of a neonate would indicate the need for further evaluation?

• A. Nystagmus
• B. Epstein pearls
• C. Low-set ears
• D. Positive Babinski reflex

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Low-set ears in a neonate suggest major abnormalities and should prompt further evaluation. The correct alignment of the top of the pinnae of the ear with the outer canthus of the eye is crucial. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, is common in newborns and often resolves on its own. Epstein pearls, small cysts on the hard palate, are insignificant and disappear over time. A positive Babinski reflex is normal in infants up to 1 year of age. Therefore, the presence of low-set ears is the most concerning finding that requires immediate attention.

2. During the 2-month well-child checkup, the nurse expects the infant to respond to sound in which manner?

• A. Respond to name
• B. React to loud noise with Moro reflex
• C. Turn his or her head to side when sound is at ear level
• D. Locate sound by turning his or her head in a curving arc

Correct answer: B

Rationale: At 2 months, infants typically react to loud noises with the Moro reflex, a startle response that is normal at this stage of development.

3. What is the appropriate site to administer an intramuscular (IM) vaccine to a newborn?

• A. The dorsal gluteal muscle
• B. The vastus lateralis muscle
• C. The ventral gluteal muscle
• D. The biceps muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct site to administer an intramuscular (IM) vaccine to a newborn is the vastus lateralis muscle. For newborns, the vastus lateralis is preferred over the dorsogluteal site because the dorsogluteal site has been associated with low antibody seroconversion rates, indicating a reduced immune response. The vastus lateralis is also recommended for IM injections in newborns, while the deltoid muscle is preferred for older infants and children. The ventral gluteal muscle and the biceps muscle are not appropriate sites for IM injections. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.

4. What is the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease?

• A. Corticosteroids
• B. Intravenous immunoglobulin
• C. Antibiotics
• D. Antivirals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). IVIG is the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease, an acute vasculitis that mainly affects children under 5 years old. Early administration of IVIG is crucial as it helps reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms, which is the most serious complication of Kawasaki disease. Corticosteroids (Choice A) are not the primary treatment for Kawasaki disease and are not recommended due to potential adverse effects. Antibiotics (Choice C) are not indicated for the treatment of Kawasaki disease as it is not caused by a bacterial infection. Antivirals (Choice D) are also not part of the standard treatment for Kawasaki disease, as it is not caused by a viral infection.

5. A child is admitted with renal failure. Which of these findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased BUN
• B. Azotemia and oliguria
• C. Increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
• D. Polyuria and elevated creatinine clearance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Azotemia (elevated BUN and creatinine) and oliguria (reduced urine output) are classic signs of renal failure, indicating impaired kidney function. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, leading to an increase in BUN and creatinine levels in the blood. Additionally, oliguria occurs due to decreased kidney function. Increased GFR (Choice C) is not expected in renal failure as it signifies improved kidney function, which is not the case in renal failure. Polyuria and elevated creatinine clearance (Choice D) are not typical findings in renal failure. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus, while elevated creatinine clearance would indicate increased kidney function, which is contrary to the impaired function seen in renal failure.

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