ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored
1. What factor has been shown to contribute to poor nutritional health among adolescents?
- A. Most teens choose fruit juice and milk over soda
- B. Many teens consume energy drinks on a regular basis
- C. Teens have busy schedules and rarely drink fluids throughout the day
- D. Teens are more likely to consume low-fat milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because many teens regularly consume energy drinks, which can contribute to poor nutritional health due to their high sugar and caffeine content, leading to unhealthy dietary patterns. Choice A is incorrect because choosing fruit juice and milk over soda would generally be considered a healthier choice. Choice C is incorrect as busy schedules leading to inadequate fluid intake might impact hydration but not necessarily poor nutritional health. Choice D is also incorrect as consuming low-fat milk is not typically a significant factor contributing to poor nutritional health among adolescents.
2. What is a disadvantage of using a food frequency questionnaire?
- A. It does not influence the food choices of the consumer
- B. It is not affected by seasonal changes in the diet
- C. It is not effective for monitoring short-term changes in food intake
- D. It does not take too long to obtain the results
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C is correct because a food frequency questionnaire is designed to capture a person's typical food intake over an extended period and is not suitable for monitoring short-term changes in diet. The questionnaire's purpose is to provide insights into long-term dietary patterns rather than immediate changes. Option A is incorrect as the questionnaire does not influence food choices; it merely records them. Option B is also incorrect because, while seasonal changes can impact food availability and thereby influence diet, the questionnaire itself is not affected by these changes. Lastly, option D is incorrect as the time to obtain results from a food frequency questionnaire would depend on the respondent's speed and accuracy rather than being intrinsically linked to the questionnaire.
3. A client who is experiencing dumping syndrome following gastric surgery is receiving education from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should drink additional fluids with my meals.
- B. I should eat high-fiber snacks between meals.
- C. I should eat a protein source with each meal.
- D. I can have caffeinated beverages in small amounts.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating a protein source with each meal can help manage dumping syndrome by slowing gastric emptying and reducing symptoms. This choice is the most appropriate as it directly addresses a key dietary recommendation for dumping syndrome. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drinking additional fluids with meals, eating high-fiber snacks between meals, and consuming caffeinated beverages can exacerbate dumping syndrome symptoms by increasing gastric emptying and worsening the condition.
4. What is the procedure called when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake?
- A. Food diary
- B. 24-hour recall
- C. Kilocalorie count
- D. Nutrient surveillance record
Correct answer: C: Kilocalorie count
Rationale: A kilocalorie count is the correct answer as it involves directly observing a client's food intake, which is often used in hospitals to accurately assess nutritional intake and ensure it meets dietary requirements. A food diary (Choice A) is typically self-reported by the client and not directly observed. A 24-hour recall (Choice B) is also usually self-reported and relies on a client's memory of the past 24 hours, which can be unreliable. A nutrient surveillance record (Choice D) is a broader term for tracking nutrient intake in a population and is not specific to the direct observation of an individual's food intake.
5. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?
- A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
- B. Sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
- C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
- D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is nowhere for them to go
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are blocked.' Tubal ligation works by blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because prostaglandins are not released from the cut fallopian tubes to kill sperm. Choice B is incorrect as the cervical entrance being blocked does not relate to tubal ligation. Choice D is incorrect because tubal ligation does not affect the release of ova from the ovary.