ATI RN
ATI Nursing Care of Children 2019 B
1. What clinical manifestation should be the most suggestive of acute appendicitis?
- A. Rebound tenderness
- B. Bright red or dark red rectal bleeding
- C. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating
- D. Colicky, cramping abdominal pain around the umbilicus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Colicky, cramping abdominal pain around the umbilicus. This type of pain is a common early sign of acute appendicitis. Rebound tenderness, choice A, is a later sign seen in the physical examination of a patient with appendicitis. Rectal bleeding, as described in choice B, is not typically associated with appendicitis. Abdominal pain that is relieved by eating, as mentioned in choice C, is more indicative of peptic ulcer disease rather than appendicitis.
2. The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
- A. The islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin
- B. The client eats too many foods that are high in sugar
- C. The pituitary gland does not produce vasopressin
- D. The cells become resistant to the circulating insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect as in Type 1 diabetes the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is incorrect as while excessive sugar intake can contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as the pituitary gland's function is unrelated to the development of Type 2 diabetes.
3. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
- A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
- B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
- C. Diazepam
- D. Morphine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
4. What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Administer anticonvulsant medication
- B. Protect the patient's head
- C. Insert an oral airway
- D. Restrain the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.
5. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care for a 76-year-old female client who is two days post-hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement) and who states that her pain has been out of control for the last several hours, though she is not exhibiting signs of pain. Which guideline should the nurse use for short-term and long-term treatment of the client's pain?
- A. Pain is what the client says it is, even if she is not exhibiting outward signs.
- B. Pain should be treated only when it is associated with observable symptoms.
- C. Long-term opioid use is generally safe for elderly clients in a hospital setting.
- D. The client's pain should be reassessed after every dose of pain medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pain is a subjective experience, and the client's report of pain should be taken seriously even if there are no outward signs. Choice B is incorrect because pain can be present without observable symptoms, and waiting for observable signs may delay appropriate pain management. Choice C is incorrect because the safety of long-term opioid use in elderly clients is a complex issue and should be carefully evaluated due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because while pain reassessment is important, it should not be limited to just after medication administration but should occur regularly to ensure adequate pain control.
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