Nursing Elites

1. What are the early signs of hypokalemia on an ECG?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Elevated ST segments
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. In hypokalemia, the T waves may flatten and eventually invert. Elevated ST segments are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in conditions like hypokalemia, but they are not considered an early sign. A widened QRS complex is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.

2. A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

• A. I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.
• B. I haven't gotten any colds, even though it is flu season.
• C. I feel like my nerve pain has improved.
• D. It is easier to urinate now.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.' Dantrolene is a medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and is commonly prescribed to treat muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Therefore, a reduction in muscle spasms frequency would be an indication of the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dantrolene is not indicated for preventing colds, improving nerve pain, or easing urination. The focus should be on the medication's intended purpose, which is to address muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis.

3. A nurse misreads a blood glucose level and administers excess insulin. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
• B. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• C. Administer glucose IV
• D. Monitor for increased thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Excess insulin can lead to low blood glucose levels, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, trembling, dizziness, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because administering excess insulin would not lead to hyperglycemia or increased thirst, and administering glucose IV would exacerbate the issue by further lowering blood glucose levels.

4. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Furosemide can lead to hypokalemia, a condition of low potassium levels in the blood. Increasing the consumption of high-potassium foods helps prevent this adverse effect. Monitoring for increased blood pressure (choice A) is not directly related to furosemide use. Expecting an increase in swelling (choice C) is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce swelling. Taking the second dose at bedtime (choice D) is not necessary unless prescribed by the healthcare provider.

Similar Questions