Nursing Elites

1. This heart condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can lead to organ failure.

• A. Cardiogenic shock
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Endocarditis
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a severe condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can result in organ failure. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, specifically refers to a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Endocarditis and Pericarditis, do not directly involve decreased cardiac output leading to organ failure, making them incorrect in the context of the symptoms described in the question.

2. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is complaining of muscle cramps. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Muscle cramps are a common symptom of hypokalemia, an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low potassium levels. Furosemide, a loop diuretic like Lasix, can lead to potassium loss in the body, contributing to hypokalemia. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as it refers to high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as it pertains to low sodium levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as it relates to low calcium levels, not typically associated with muscle cramps in the context of furosemide use.

3. What is a type of medication that helps to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. ACE inhibitor
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Anticoagulants are medications specifically designed to prevent blood clots by thinning the blood. They work by interfering with the body's blood clotting process. Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers are medications used for different purposes such as managing blood pressure, heart conditions, and regulating heart rhythm, respectively. However, they do not have the primary function of preventing blood clots like anticoagulants.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin
• B. Administer vitamin K
• C. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• D. Hold the next dose and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

5. Which term refers to the contraction phase of the heart when blood is ejected from the chambers?

• A. Systole
• B. Diastole
• C. Contractility
• D. Afterload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, systole. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. During diastole (choice B), the heart relaxes and fills with blood, contrasting with systole. Contractility (choice C) refers to the ability of the heart to contract effectively. Afterload (choice D) is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole.

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