Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?

• A. Assessing clot formation potential
• B. Assessing bleeding risk
• C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
• D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.

2. A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?

• A. Complain to her fellow nurses
• B. Wait until she knows more about the unit
• C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
• D. Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.

3. Which technique in physical examination is used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree?

• A. Palpation
• B. Auscultation
• C. Inspection
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Auscultation. Auscultation is a technique in physical examination used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree. During auscultation, healthcare providers listen to lung sounds using a stethoscope to detect abnormalities such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds, which can indicate conditions affecting the airways or lungs. Palpation (Choice A) involves feeling the body for abnormalities, Inspection (Choice C) involves visual examination, and Percussion (Choice D) involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help in assessing underlying structures, but they are not directly used to assess air movement through the tracheobronchial tree.

4. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
• B. Apical pulse 58/min
• C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
• D. Constipation for 2 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.

5. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...

• A. Three times a day orally
• B. Three times a day after meals
• C. Two times a day by mouth
• D. Two times a day before meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.

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