ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
- A. Assessing clot formation potential
- B. Assessing bleeding risk
- C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
- D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
2. If a healthcare provider administers an injection to a patient who refuses, they have committed:
- A. Assault and battery
- B. Negligence
- C. Malpractice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a healthcare provider administers treatment, such as an injection, against a patient's refusal or will, it constitutes assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act that causes a person to fear that they will be touched without consent, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, administering the injection without the patient's consent is both an assault (causing fear of unwanted contact) and a battery (unwanted physical contact). Therefore, the correct answer is 'Assault and battery.' Negligence refers to a failure to exercise the appropriate level of care expected in a situation, while malpractice involves professional negligence or misconduct.
3. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Administer antiviral medications
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.
4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
5. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of the following conclusions?
- A. Side rails are ineffective
- B. Side rails should not be used
- C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevents a patient from falling out of bed
- D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to get out of bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct conclusion drawn from the study is that side rails serve as a reminder to the patient not to get out of bed rather than being a fail-proof preventive measure against falls. While they may not entirely prevent falls, they play a role in prompting the patient to be cautious when moving.
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