Nursing Elites

1. The presence of which pair of factors is a good predictor of a fluid deficit of at least 5% in an infant?

• A. Weight loss and decreased heart rate
• B. Capillary refill of less than 2 seconds and no tears
• C. Increased skin elasticity and sunken anterior fontanel
• D. Dry mucous membranes and generally ill appearance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes and an ill appearance are good indicators of dehydration in infants, often correlating with a fluid deficit of at least 5%. Sunken fontanels and poor skin turgor are also indicative but were not options here.

2. The nurse is using a bulb syringe to suction a neonate after delivery. What is an important consideration?

• A. Compress the bulb before insertion.
• B. Clear the mouth and pharynx before the nasal passages.
• C. Use two bulb syringes, one for the mouth and pharynx and one for the nasal passages.
• D. Continue using a bulb syringe until secretions are removed as mechanical suction is contraindicated.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct consideration when using a bulb syringe to suction a neonate after delivery is to clear the mouth and pharynx before the nasal passages to prevent aspiration of amniotic fluid. Compressing the bulb syringe before insertion is important to create suction. Using two bulb syringes is unnecessary, as one is sufficient for both the mouth/pharynx and nasal passages. It is not recommended to continue using a bulb syringe until all secretions are removed; instead, mechanical suction can be employed if more forceful removal of secretions is required.

3. The mother of a child with cognitive impairment calls the nurse because her son has been gagging and drooling all morning. The nurse suspects foreign body ingestion. What physiologic occurrence is most likely responsible for the presenting signs?

• A. Gastrointestinal perforation may have occurred.
• B. The object may have been aspirated.
• C. The object may be lodged in the esophagus.
• D. The object may be embedded in the stomach wall.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of gagging and drooling suggest that the foreign object is likely lodged in the esophagus. This can cause significant discomfort and potential complications, requiring immediate medical evaluation.

4. At what age is the first dose of the hepatitis A vaccine recommended to be started?

• A. 1 year
• B. 1 month
• C. 12 years
• D. It is not recommended at any age

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 year. The hepatitis A vaccine is now recommended for all children starting at age 1 year (i.e., 12 to 23 months). This is due to the recognition of hepatitis A as a significant child health problem, especially in areas with high infection rates. The virus is primarily spread through fecal-oral transmission, person-to-person contact, ingestion of contaminated food or water, and rarely through blood transfusion. Administering the first dose at 1 year helps protect children from this infection. Choices B and C are incorrect as the vaccine is not recommended at 1 month or 12 years. Choice D is also incorrect as the hepatitis A vaccine is recommended at a specific age to prevent the infection.

5. A major reason for the development of respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm infant is:

• A. Excessive surfactant
• B. Lack of surfactant
• C. Immature immune system
• D. Lack of body fat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lack of surfactant. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in preterm infants is primarily due to a lack of surfactant, which is crucial for keeping the lungs inflated. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, leading to breathing difficulties. Choice A, Excessive surfactant, is incorrect as RDS is caused by an insufficient amount of surfactant. Choice C, Immature immune system, and Choice D, Lack of body fat, are not directly related to the development of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

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