Nursing Elites

1. The nurse would assess the client experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis for pain that is located in the right:

• A. Upper quadrant and radiates to the left scapula and shoulder
• B. Upper quadrant and radiates to the right scapula and shoulder
• C. Lower quadrant and radiates to the umbilicus
• D. Lower quadrant and radiates to the back

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pain from cholecystitis is typically located in the right upper quadrant and may radiate to the right scapula and shoulder.

2. Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this disease?

• A. The entire length of the large colon
• B. Only the sigmoid area
• C. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa
• D. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus, but it commonly affects the small intestine and colon, involving the entire thickness of the bowel wall.

3. The physician orders a Salem sump tube for gastrointestinal intubation. The nurse prepares for the insertion and obtains which of the following items from the supply room?

• A. A tube with a single lumen that connects to suction
• B. A tube with a large lumen and an air vent
• C. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
• D. A Dobbhoff weighted tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A tube with a large lumen and an air vent is a Salem sump tube. A tube with a single lumen is called a Levin’s tube. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used to control bleeding in the esophagus. A Dobbhoff weighted tube is used for feedings.

4. The nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a client with peptic ulcer disease with a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain. The nurse would determine that the client has not met the expected outcomes if the client states

• A. That pain is relieved with histamine H2 receptor antagonists.
• B. That irritating foods have been eliminated from the diet.
• C. The client is being awakened at 2 AM with heartburn.
• D. The client has absence of pain before meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expected outcomes for the client with peptic ulcer disease experiencing pain include elimination of irritating foods from the diet, ability to take prescribed medications that will reduce pain, reporting that the pain is relieved or prevented with medication, and an ability to sleep through the night without pain. The client who continues to be awakened by pain requires further modification of medication therapy, which may include adjustment of timing of histamine H2 receptor antagonist or an additional dose of antacid before the time when pain awakens the client.

5. A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:

• A. Absence of nausea and vomiting.
• B. Passage of mucus from the rectum.
• C. Passage of flatus and feces from the colostomy.
• D. Absence of stomach drainage for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery. Absence of stomach drainage is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued.

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