Nursing Elites

1. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

2. The nurse aspirates 40 mL of undigested formula from the client’s nasogastric tube. Before administering an intermittent tube feeding, the nurse understands that the 40 mL of gastric aspirate should be

• A. Discarded properly and recorded as output on the client’s intake and output record.
• B. Poured into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed.
• C. Mixed with the formula and poured into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed.
• D. Diluted with water and injected into the nasogastric tube by putting pressure on the plunger.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After checking the residual feeding contents, the gastric contents are reinstalled into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and pouring the gastric contents into the syringe and through the nasogastric tube. Gastric contents should be reinstalled to maintain the client’s electrolyte balance. The gastric contents should be poured into the nasogastric tube through a syringe without a plunger and not injected by putting pressure on the plunger. Gastric contents do not need to be mixed with water or should the contents be discarded.

3. The client with a duodenal ulcer may exhibit which of the following findings on assessment?

• A. Hematemesis
• B. Malnourishment
• C. Melena
• D. Pain with eating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Melena (black, tarry stools) can be an indication of a duodenal ulcer.

4. Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn’s disease?

• A. Bloody diarrhea
• B. Narrow stools
• C. N/V
• D. Steatorrhea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in the stool.

5. Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?

• A. Low-fiber diet
• B. High-fiber diet
• C. High-protein diet
• D. Low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-fiber diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis because it leads to harder stools and increased pressure in the colon. The lack of fiber results in decreased bulk and slower transit time, predisposing individuals to constipation and the formation of diverticula. High-fiber diets, on the other hand, promote regular bowel movements and help prevent diverticular disease. High-protein and low-carbohydrate diets do not have a direct association with diverticulosis.

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