Nursing Elites

1. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.

2. Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to manage a client with appendicitis?

• A. Assessing for pain
• B. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids
• C. Providing discharge teaching
• D. Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assessing for symptoms of peritonitis. This intervention is crucial in managing a client with appendicitis because it indicates a possible rupture of the inflamed appendix. Symptoms of peritonitis include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal rigidity. Prompt recognition of these symptoms is essential for timely intervention and surgical management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while assessing for pain is important, assessing for symptoms of peritonitis takes precedence due to the critical nature of appendicitis. Encouraging oral intake of clear fluids and providing discharge teaching are not immediate priorities in the management of a client with acute appendicitis.

3. Leigh Ann is receiving pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis. Which observation best indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. There is no skin breakdown.
• B. Her appetite improves.
• C. She loses more than 10 lbs.
• D. Stools are less fatty and decreased in frequency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The effectiveness of pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis is best indicated by stools being less fatty and decreased in frequency.

4. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is your priority?

• A. Increase the I.V. infusion rate.
• B. Use diversion activities.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Give ice chips every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide frequent mouth care. In a patient with peritonitis who is NPO and thirsty, the priority is to maintain oral hygiene and provide comfort by moistening the mouth with frequent mouth care. This helps alleviate the sensation of thirst and maintains oral health. Increasing the IV infusion rate (choice A) may not address the patient's discomfort directly related to thirst. Using diversion activities (choice B) is not as critical as addressing the patient's immediate need for oral care. Giving ice chips every 15 minutes (choice D) is not recommended for a patient with peritonitis who is NPO, as it can lead to complications or worsen the condition.

5. The pain of a duodenal ulcer can be distinguished from that of a gastric ulcer by which of the following characteristics?

• A. Early satiety
• B. Pain on eating
• C. Dull upper epigastric pain
• D. Pain on empty stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain on an empty stomach is characteristic of a duodenal ulcer, while pain on eating is characteristic of a gastric ulcer.

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