Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue, what is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication?

• A. Use a small gauge needle
• B. Apply ice on the injection site
• C. Administer at a 45° angle
• D. Use the Z-track technique

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Z-track technique is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication when administering an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. This technique involves pulling the skin to the side before administering the injection and then releasing the skin after the injection. By doing so, a zig-zag pathway is created, preventing the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and reducing irritation. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a small gauge needle may not prevent tracking of the medication. Applying ice on the injection site or administering at a 45° angle does not specifically address preventing tracking of the medication in cases where the injection is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.

2. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

4. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Eupnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.

5. What is the transparent membrane that focuses the light entering the eyes onto the retina?

• A. Lens
• B. Sclera
• C. Cornea
• D. Pupils

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the lens. The lens is a transparent structure in the eye that helps to focus light onto the retina, which is essential for clear vision. The cornea and sclera are also important parts of the eye, but the lens specifically plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina. The sclera is the white outer layer of the eye that helps maintain the shape of the eye, while the cornea is the clear outer covering of the eye that helps to refract light into the eye.

Similar Questions