Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue, what is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication?

• A. Use a small gauge needle
• B. Apply ice on the injection site
• C. Administer at a 45° angle
• D. Use the Z-track technique

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Z-track technique is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication when administering an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. This technique involves pulling the skin to the side before administering the injection and then releasing the skin after the injection. By doing so, a zig-zag pathway is created, preventing the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and reducing irritation. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a small gauge needle may not prevent tracking of the medication. Applying ice on the injection site or administering at a 45° angle does not specifically address preventing tracking of the medication in cases where the injection is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.

2. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?

• A. SaO2 95%
• B. Wheezing
• C. Retraction of sternal muscles
• D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.

3. While reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients, which infection should the nurse in a provider's office report?

• A. Herpes simplex
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Chlamydia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires notification and intervention due to its public health implications and potential complications if left untreated. Reporting Chlamydia is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment, prevent further spread of the infection, and provide necessary counseling to affected individuals. While other infections like herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are also significant, Chlamydia is particularly important to report in this context.

4. A client has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is not an expected finding?

• A. Impulse control difficulty
• B. Left hemiplegia
• C. Loss of depth perception
• D. Aphasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a right-hemispheric stroke, the expected findings include left-sided hemiplegia (Choice B), loss of depth perception (Choice C), and impulse control difficulty (Choice A). Aphasia (Choice D) is typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes. Therefore, aphasia is not an expected finding in a client who has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

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