Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching the mother of a 9-month-old infant about administering liquid iron preparation. Which information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Adequate dosage will turn the stools a tarry, black color.
• B. Give Vitamin D to enhance absorption.
• C. Allow the liquid iron to mix with saliva before swallowing.
• D. Give the liquid iron with meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Iron supplements can cause stools to turn black, which is a normal and harmless side effect. Iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach, although it can be given with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs. Vitamin C, not D, enhances iron absorption. Choice B is incorrect because Vitamin C enhances iron absorption, not Vitamin D. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to mix liquid iron with saliva before swallowing. Choice D is incorrect because iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach.

2. The nurse is caring for a child with a urinary tract infection who is on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim). What side effects of this medication should the nurse teach to the parents and the child? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Rash
• B. Urticaria
• C. All are applicable
• D. Photosensitivity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) can cause side effects like rash, urticaria, and photosensitivity. Parents and the child should be educated on these potential side effects to ensure prompt recognition and management.

3. What is the first step in managing a child with anaphylaxis?

• A. Administer antihistamines
• B. Establish IV access
• C. Administer epinephrine
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Administering epinephrine is the crucial first step in managing anaphylaxis as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels and relaxing airway muscles, preventing a life-threatening situation. Antihistamines (Choice A) are not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and should not delay the administration of epinephrine. Establishing IV access (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial step in managing anaphylaxis. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is important but should not take precedence over administering epinephrine in the acute management of anaphylaxis.

4. An infant is diagnosed with a tracheoesophageal fistula. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• C. Absence of sucking, vomiting
• D. Coughing, with excessive secretion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coughing with excessive secretion is a common sign of tracheoesophageal fistula. In this condition, the connection between the trachea and esophagus allows saliva and food to enter the airways, leading to coughing and excessive secretions. Choice A, jaundice, is not typically associated with tracheoesophageal fistula. Hyperactive bowel sounds (Choice B) are more likely seen in conditions like gastroenteritis. Absence of sucking and vomiting (Choice C) is not a typical finding related to tracheoesophageal fistula.

5. A major reason for the development of respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm infant is:

• A. Excessive surfactant
• B. Lack of surfactant
• C. Immature immune system
• D. Lack of body fat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lack of surfactant. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in preterm infants is primarily due to a lack of surfactant, which is crucial for keeping the lungs inflated. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, leading to breathing difficulties. Choice A, Excessive surfactant, is incorrect as RDS is caused by an insufficient amount of surfactant. Choice C, Immature immune system, and Choice D, Lack of body fat, are not directly related to the development of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

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