Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed, as-needed antiemetic drug for a child diagnosed with cancer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Administering the drug only if the child is nauseated.
• B. Administering the drug prophylactically before the next dose of chemotherapy.
• C. Administering the drug after the next dose of chemotherapy.
• D. Administering the drug only if the child is experiencing diarrhea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the antiemetic prophylactically before the next dose of chemotherapy is the most appropriate action. This approach helps prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Waiting until the child is already nauseated, as stated in option A, is less effective as it is reactive rather than proactive. Administering the drug after chemotherapy, as in option C, may not be as beneficial in preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Option D, administering the drug only if the child is experiencing diarrhea, is not relevant to the prevention of chemotherapy-induced nausea.

2. At what age is it safe to give infants whole milk instead of commercial infant formula?

• A. 6 months
• B. 9 months
• C. 12 months
• D. 18 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Whole milk should not be introduced before 12 months because it lacks the necessary nutrients, such as iron, that infants need for proper growth and development.

3. Which physiological acid-base balance complication would be most important for the nurse to assess in a patient with diarrhea?

• A. High serum pH
• B. Normal serum pH
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is metabolic acidosis. Diarrhea can lead to the loss of bicarbonate, causing an imbalance in the acid-base status of the body, specifically resulting in metabolic acidosis. High serum pH (choice A) is incorrect as diarrhea-induced bicarbonate loss would lower pH, not increase it. Normal serum pH (choice B) is not the best answer as diarrhea can disrupt the acid-base balance. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is an alkaline state, which is less likely to be caused by diarrhea.

4. An intravenous line is needed in a school-age child. What medication is an appropriate analgesic for use with this patient?

• A. TAC (tetracaine, epinephrine [Adrenalin], cocaine) 15 minutes before the procedure.
• B. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch at the site of venipuncture.
• C. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) immediately before the procedure.
• D. LMX (4% liposomal lidocaine cream) 30 minutes before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: LMX is an effective analgesic agent when applied to the skin 30 minutes before a procedure. It eliminates or reduces the pain from most procedures involving skin puncture. TAC provides skin anesthesia about 15 minutes after application to nonintact skin, making it more suitable for wound suturing. Transdermal fentanyl patches are designed for continuous pain control, not rapid pain control needed for a procedure like venipuncture. EMLA, for maximum effectiveness, must be applied approximately 60 minutes before the procedure, making it less suitable for immediate pain relief required for intravenous line placement.

5. The nurse is caring for a child with an order of Ampicillin 250 mg IV in 30 mL of Normal Saline to infuse over 30 minutes. How many mL/hour should the nurse set the pump?

• A. 60
• B. 30
• C. 120
• D. 15

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct setting for the infusion pump should be 60 mL/hour to deliver 30 mL in 30 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hour, divide the total volume to be infused (30 mL) by the total time for infusion (30 minutes) and then multiply by 60 to convert minutes to hours. Therefore, 30 mL / 30 minutes * 60 minutes/hour = 60 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not match the calculation based on the given parameters.

Similar Questions