ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the use of steroid therapy immediately if symptoms develop.
- B. Take diuretics as needed to treat the dependent edema in ankles.
- C. Increase the intake of dietary sodium every day to decrease fluid retention.
- D. Report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.
2. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
- C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
- D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.
3. During a physical assessment of a newborn, what finding should the nurse prioritize reporting?
- A. Head circumference of 40 cm
- B. Chest circumference of 32 cm
- C. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp
- D. Heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a head circumference of 40 cm is unusually large for a newborn, which may indicate hydrocephalus or other abnormalities. Reporting this finding is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as concerning during a newborn physical assessment. A chest circumference of 32 cm is within the normal range for a newborn. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common findings in newborns and usually resolve without intervention. While a heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min should be monitored, they are not as critical as an unusually large head circumference.
4. When does short-bowel syndrome usually occur?
- A. The longitudinal muscles of the intestine contract
- B. More than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed
- C. More than 50% of the large intestine is surgically removed
- D. Transit time is decreased due to infection or drugs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Short-bowel syndrome typically occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition leads to malabsorption issues due to the reduced length of the intestine for absorption. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because short-bowel syndrome specifically relates to the insufficient length of the small intestine, not the contraction of longitudinal muscles, surgical removal of the large intestine, or decreased transit time due to infection or drugs.
5. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?
- A. Preparation
- B. Training
- C. Mobilization
- D. Selection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.
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