the nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome which intervention should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

4. Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased urine output. When vegetative lesions from the mitral valve embolize, they can block blood flow to the kidneys, leading to renal infarction. This can result in decreased urine output. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage of an artery in the lungs, not directly related to embolization from the mitral valve. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood from the respiratory tract, which is not a direct consequence of embolization from the mitral valve. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, unrelated to embolization from the mitral valve.

5. Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with chronic alcoholism, the most likely nutrient deficiency is Vitamin B1 (thiamine), not Vitamin B12. Chronic alcoholism often leads to Vitamin B1 deficiency, causing conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy. While other vitamin deficiencies can also occur in chronic alcoholism, such as Vitamin C and Vitamin D, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with alcoholism.

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