ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test B 2019
1. The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client. Which statement made by the client is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. "I notice when I take a vitamin E supplement, I bruise more easily."
- B. "I work nights and rarely go outside during the day."
- C. "I take warfarin, so I need to limit the amount of green leafy vegetables I eat."
- D. "My vitamin supplement has the recommended daily allowance of vitamin A."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Excessive intake of vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding as it acts as a blood thinner. Bruising easily may indicate too much vitamin E. Choice B is not as concerning as it describes a lifestyle that may lead to vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Choice C shows awareness of the interaction between warfarin and vitamin K, which is expected. Choice D indicates knowledge of the vitamin A content in the supplement, which is not a cause for concern.
2. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:
- A. Soften and efface the cervix
- B. Numb cervical pain receptors
- C. Prevent cervical lacerations
- D. Stimulate uterine contractions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
3. A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to the parents of a toddler. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as highest risk for allergies in toddlers?
- A. Eggs
- B. Milk
- C. Bananas
- D. Citrus fruits
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are one of the most common food allergens in toddlers and should be introduced carefully. Milk (choice B) is also a common allergen but is typically introduced earlier in a child's diet. Bananas (choice C) and citrus fruits (choice D) are less likely to cause allergic reactions compared to eggs.
4. What is the most likely demonstration of cardiac cachexia?
- A. Decreased physical activity
- B. Weight loss and tissue wasting
- C. Poor urine output and tissue edema
- D. Cardiac arrhythmia and wet lung sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac cachexia is a condition characterized by severe weight loss and tissue wasting. This typically occurs in patients suffering from heart failure due to an increased energy expenditure and reduced appetite, which is why choice B is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the symptoms of cardiac cachexia. Decreased physical activity (choice A) can be a result of many conditions, not specifically cardiac cachexia. Poor urine output and tissue edema (choice C) are more indicative of kidney problems rather than cardiac cachexia. Finally, cardiac arrhythmia and wet lung sounds (choice D) are symptoms related to other cardiac conditions, not specifically to cardiac cachexia.
5. Which cells in the islet of the pancreas are responsible for synthesizing insulin?
- A. Alpha cells
- B. Beta cells
- C. Gamma cells
- D. Delta cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are responsible for the production and secretion of insulin, which is crucial for regulating blood glucose levels. Alpha cells, on the other hand, produce glucagon, a hormone that raises blood glucose levels. Gamma cells and Delta cells do not exist in the islets of Langerhans; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access