ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. The nurse is caring for a patient in the hospital. The nurse observes the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) turning off the handle faucet with bare hands. Which professional practice principle supports the need for follow-up with the NAP?
- A. The nurse is responsible for providing a safe environment for the patient.
- B. This step is crucial in the process of handwashing.
- C. Different scopes of practice allow for procedure modifications.
- D. Leaving the water running wastes resources and money.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse is responsible for providing a safe environment for the patient. In this situation, the nurse should follow up with the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) who turned off the handle faucet with bare hands to ensure infection control practices are maintained. This action is crucial to prevent the spread of infections in the hospital setting. Choice B is incorrect because the question is not specifically about handwashing procedures but about infection control practices. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of infection transmission. Choice D is incorrect as it is unrelated to the main concern of infection control in this scenario.
2. How can a healthcare provider prevent pressure ulcers in an immobile patient?
- A. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- B. Provide the patient with a special mattress.
- C. Elevate the patient's legs to reduce pressure.
- D. Limit the patient's movement to reduce friction.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the immobile patient with a special mattress is an effective way to prevent pressure ulcers. Special mattresses help distribute pressure evenly and reduce the risk of developing pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on sensitive areas. Turning the patient every 4 hours (Choice A) is a standard practice to prevent pressure ulcers but may not be as effective as using a special mattress. Elevating the patient's legs (Choice C) can help with circulation but may not directly prevent pressure ulcers. Limiting the patient's movement (Choice D) can lead to other complications and is not a recommended method for preventing pressure ulcers.
3. What are the common side effects of opioid analgesics, and how should they be managed?
- A. Drowsiness and dizziness, ensuring safety precautions
- B. Respiratory depression, ensuring adequate ventilation
- C. Constipation and nausea, managed with stool softeners
- D. Nausea and vomiting, managing with antiemetics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Common side effects of opioid analgesics include drowsiness and dizziness. These side effects can impair a person's ability to operate machinery or drive safely. To manage these side effects, it is essential to advise patients to avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because respiratory depression, constipation, and nausea are also common side effects of opioids, but they are not the primary side effects being asked for in this question.
4. A patient is prescribed a diuretic for hypertension. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Monitor the patient's respiratory rate.
- B. Check the patient's blood pressure regularly.
- C. Monitor the patient's potassium levels.
- D. Monitor the patient's sodium levels.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a patient is prescribed a diuretic for hypertension, monitoring the patient's sodium levels is crucial. Diuretics can lead to alterations in sodium levels, potentially causing complications like hyponatremia. While monitoring other parameters like respiratory rate, blood pressure, and potassium levels may also be important, the primary concern with diuretic therapy is the risk of sodium imbalance, making the monitoring of sodium levels the most critical assessment.
5. When is removal of the restraints by the nurse appropriate?
- A. When medication that has been administered has taken effect
- B. When no acts of aggression are observed in the hour following the release of two extremity restraints
- C. When the nurse explores with the client the reasons for the angry and aggressive behavior
- D. When the client apologizes and tells the nurse that it will never happen again
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse can safely remove restraints once no aggressive behavior is observed after releasing two extremity restraints for an hour. Choice A is incorrect because the removal of restraints should be based on the client's behavior rather than just the effect of medication. Choice C is incorrect as exploring reasons for aggressive behavior should be done before or during the intervention, not as a condition for removing restraints. Choice D is incorrect since an apology from the client does not guarantee a change in behavior or indicate that it is safe to remove the restraints.
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