ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. The nurse is caring for a group of medical-surgical patients. A fire has been reported in an adjacent wing of the hospital. What should the nurse do to ensure the patients' safety?
- A. Wait until the fire department arrives before taking action.
- B. Close all doors.
- C. Identify evacuation routes.
- D. Move bedridden patients in their beds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a fire emergency, it is crucial to close all doors to contain smoke and fire, helping to protect the patients. This action can prevent the spread of fire and smoke to the area where patients are located. Identifying evacuation routes is also important for a timely and orderly evacuation if necessary. Waiting for the fire department to arrive before taking action (Choice A) can waste valuable time and put patients at risk. Moving bedridden patients in their beds (Choice D) can be dangerous during a fire and should be avoided as it can expose patients and staff to more risks.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
- A. Sheepskin heel pad
- B. Footboard
- C. Trochanter roll
- D. Abduction pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 4
- D. 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.
4. A patient is admitted with signs of stroke. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse anticipate as the priority?
- A. CT scan
- B. MRI
- C. X-ray
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CT scan is the priority diagnostic test to identify and confirm the location and severity of a stroke.
5. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills, a headache, and low back pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer acetaminophen
- B. Stop the transfusion
- C. Slow the transfusion rate
- D. Administer antihistamines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion (Choice B). The symptoms described - chills, headache, and low back pain - are indicative of a transfusion reaction. The priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion to prevent further complications such as more severe reactions like hemolytic reactions or anaphylaxis. Administering acetaminophen (Choice A) may help with symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Slowing the transfusion rate (Choice C) may not be sufficient if a serious transfusion reaction is occurring. Administering antihistamines (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; stopping the transfusion takes precedence to ensure patient safety.
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