Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

• A. The pancreas
• B. The adrenal cortex
• C. The adrenal medulla
• D. The anterior pituitary gland

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.

2. Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increased sodium intake
• B. Decreased potassium intake
• C. Increased fiber intake
• D. Increased cholesterol intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increased sodium intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can raise blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake (choice B) is not advisable as potassium helps regulate blood pressure. Increased cholesterol intake (choice D) is also not recommended as high cholesterol levels can contribute to cardiovascular issues, including hypertension.

3. What condition should a patient on long-term steroid therapy be monitored for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypertension
• D. Osteoporosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis. Prolonged use of steroids can lead to decreased bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with steroid-induced diabetes rather than long-term steroid use. Hypothyroidism is not a typical complication of long-term steroid therapy. While steroids can contribute to hypertension, osteoporosis is a more prominent concern in this scenario.

4. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
• B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
• C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
• D. A, B, and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.

5. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

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