ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
- A. The pancreas
- B. The adrenal cortex
- C. The adrenal medulla
- D. The anterior pituitary gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.
2. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate soldiers in the history and traditions of the service'?
- A. Accountability
- B. Personal/professional development
- C. Individual training
- D. Military appearance/physical condition
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Personal/professional development.' This category involves educating individuals in various aspects, including history and traditions. In this case, educating soldiers in the history and traditions of the service falls under personal/professional development rather than the other options provided. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses on responsibility and answerability, not education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains more to specific skill development rather than broader education on history and traditions. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' is related to maintaining physical standards and image, which is not directly relevant to educating soldiers in history and traditions.
3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
4. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?
- A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
- B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
- C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
- D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulinomas lead to excessive insulin production, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis. These symptoms result from the low blood sugar levels. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinomas. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (choice D) are not typical symptoms of insulinomas.
5. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.
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