Nursing Elites

1. The nurse develops a plan of care for a client with a T tube. Which one of the following nursing interventions should be included?

• A. Inspect skin around the T tube daily for irritation.
• B. Irrigate the T tube every 4 hours to maintain patency.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position while the T tube is in place.
• D. Keep the T tube clamped except during mealtimes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with a T tube is to inspect the skin around the T tube daily for irritation. Bile is erosive and can cause skin irritation, so it is crucial to keep the skin clean and dry. T tubes are not routinely irrigated; irrigation is done only with a physician's order. It is unnecessary to maintain the client in a supine position; instead, assist the client into a position of comfort. T tubes are not typically clamped unless ordered by a physician, and if clamped, it is usually done 1 to 2 hours before and after meals.

2. Vasopressin (Pitressin) therapy is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices. The nurse is preparing to administer the medication to the client. Which of the following essential items is needed during the administration of this medication?

• A. A cardiac monitor
• B. An intubation set
• C. A suction setup
• D. A tracheotomy set

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major action of vasopressin is constriction of the splanchnic blood flow. Continuous electrocardiogram and blood pressure monitoring are essential because of the constrictive effects of the medication on the coronary arteries. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not essential items required during the administration of this medication.

3. Which of the following tests can be used to diagnose ulcers?

• A. Abdominal x-ray
• B. Barium swallow
• C. Computed tomography (CT) scan
• D. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) is a diagnostic test that involves visualizing the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum to diagnose ulcers.

4. Your patient, Christopher, has a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis and has severe abdominal pain aggravated by movement, rebound tenderness, fever, nausea, and decreased urine output. This may indicate which complication?

• A. Fistula.
• B. Bowel perforation.
• C. Bowel obstruction.
• D. Abscess.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Severe abdominal pain aggravated by movement, rebound tenderness, fever, nausea, and decreased urine output in a patient with ulcerative colitis may indicate bowel perforation.

5. You’re caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?

• A. Flushed, dry skin.
• B. Headache and bradycardia.
• C. Dizziness and sweating.
• D. Dyspnea and chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.

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