the client is on a beta blocker for hypertension what should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam

1. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

2. This medication type is used to relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasodilator. Vasodilators are medications that work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which improves blood flow and reduces blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions. Anticoagulants (choice B) are medications that prevent blood clot formation, diuretics (choice C) increase urine production to reduce fluid retention, and beta-blockers (choice D) reduce heart rate and workload on the heart. These mechanisms differ from the action of vasodilators.

3. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to a client with a heart rate of 58 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 58 bpm is considered low, and beta blockers can further decrease the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse's priority action should be to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment. Choice A is incorrect because administering the beta blocker without considering the low heart rate can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the dose of the beta blocker can lead to further slowing of the heart rate, which is not safe in this situation. Choice D is not the priority action; holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is more crucial.

4. What is a condition where the alveoli are gradually destroyed, leading to shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition where the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs are damaged, reducing the surface area available for gas exchange. This destruction leads to symptoms like shortness of breath and reduced oxygen exchange. Choice B, pulmonary fibrosis, involves scarring and thickening of the lung tissue, not destruction of alveoli. Choice C, pulmonary edema, is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli. Choice D, lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs, not destruction of alveoli.

5. Which term describes a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is indeed a type of abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid and irregular beating of the atria. This condition can increase the risk of stroke and heart failure. Choice B, Ventricular fibrillation, is incorrect because it refers to a life-threatening arrhythmia that occurs in the ventricles, not the atria. Choice C, Atrial flutter, is incorrect as it describes a different type of atrial arrhythmia characterized by a regular but fast heartbeat. Choice D, Sinus tachycardia, is incorrect because it is a normal increase in heart rate originating from the sinus node, not an abnormal rhythm.

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