Nursing Elites

1. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

2. What is a chronic condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become inflamed and narrowed, often caused by smoking?

• A. Chronic bronchitis
• B. Emphysema
• C. Asthma
• D. Tuberculosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is the correct answer because it is a long-term condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes in the lungs, commonly triggered by smoking. Emphysema involves damage to the air sacs in the lungs, not specifically the bronchial tubes. Asthma is a condition of reversible airway obstruction usually due to allergies or other triggers, not solely smoking. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but is not directly related to inflammation and narrowing of the bronchial tubes.

3. What type of medication is used to reduce high blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels?

• A. Calcium channel blocker
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. ACE inhibitor
• D. Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers are medications that reduce high blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels, facilitating easier blood flow through the vessels. Beta-blockers work by reducing the heart rate and the heart's workload. ACE inhibitors help relax blood vessels by blocking the production of a chemical that narrows blood vessels. Diuretics help the body get rid of excess sodium and water to lower blood pressure, but they do not directly relax blood vessels like calcium channel blockers do.

4. The client on enoxaparin (Lovenox) is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the enoxaparin as scheduled.
• C. Administer vitamin K before the surgery.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR and proceed with surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider. Enoxaparin, being an anticoagulant, should be held before surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. It is crucial to inform the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering enoxaparin before surgery can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not typically indicated in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring the client's INR and proceeding with surgery without addressing the enoxaparin can lead to significant bleeding complications.

5. What condition involves a weakened and bulging aorta, the main artery in the body, potentially leading to rupture?

• A. Aortic aneurysm
• B. Arterial stenosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aortic aneurysm is a condition characterized by the weakening and bulging of the aorta, the body's main artery. If left untreated, this bulging may lead to a rupture, causing severe complications. Arterial stenosis refers to the narrowing of an artery, not the weakening and bulging seen in an aortic aneurysm. Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary artery, which is different from the weakening and bulging in an aortic aneurysm. Deep vein thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, not related to the condition described in the question.

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