Nursing Elites

1. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

2. The client is on furosemide (Lasix) and has a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer potassium supplements.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Decrease the dose of furosemide.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer potassium supplements. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the priority action is to administer potassium supplements to correct the imbalance. Option B is incorrect because holding the furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could further worsen the imbalance. Option C is incorrect as continuing the current dose of furosemide without addressing the low potassium level could lead to complications. Option D is incorrect because decreasing the dose of furosemide does not directly address the low potassium level that needs immediate correction.

3. Which condition is characterized by fluid collection in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe?

• A. Pulmonary edema
• B. Pleurisy
• C. Pleural effusion
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema is a condition where fluid accumulates in the air sacs of the lungs, causing breathing difficulty. Pleurisy (choice B) is inflammation of the pleura causing chest pain. Pleural effusion (choice C) is the buildup of excess fluid in the pleural space, the area between the layers of tissue that line the lungs and chest cavity. Pneumothorax (choice D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause a lung to collapse.

4. What is a type of heart disease that involves the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump blood?

• A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
• C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
• D. Arrhythmia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease characterized by the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to pump blood. This condition is different from dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B), which involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by the stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill with blood properly. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms and is not specifically related to thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

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