Nursing Elites

1. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.

2. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

3. What is the condition where the lungs become filled with fluid, often due to heart failure, making it difficult to breathe?

• A. Pulmonary edema
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Pulmonary hypertension
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary edema is the correct answer. It occurs when fluid fills the lungs, usually due to heart failure, leading to breathing difficulties. Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid around the lungs, not inside. Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, and pneumothorax is the presence of air between the lung and chest wall.

4. Which term refers to high blood pressure, a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperlipidemia
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypertension. Hypertension is a condition characterized by persistently high blood pressure, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke. Choice B, Hypotension, refers to low blood pressure. Choice C, Hyperlipidemia, is the term for high levels of fats in the blood. Choice D, Diabetes, is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

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