ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
- B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
- C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
- D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.
2. The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?
- A. Collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another
- B. Collect three (3) early morning, clean voided urine specimens
- C. Collect the specimens after the HCP massages the prostate
- D. Collect a routine urine specimen for analysis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To obtain accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine, the nurse should instruct the patient to collect the first 15 mL of urine in one container and the subsequent 50 mL in another. This method ensures that the specimens are separated appropriately for analysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because collecting three early morning urine specimens, massaging the prostate, or collecting a routine urine specimen would not provide the specific separation of urethral and bladder urine required for this particular test.
3. The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?
- A. The client who needs both sequential compression devices removed
- B. The elderly woman who needs assistance ambulating to the bathroom
- C. The surgical client who needs help changing the gown after bathing
- D. The male client who needs the intravenous fluid discontinued
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a serious complication. Therefore, this client should be seen first to prevent any potential harm. Choice B may be important, but it does not pose an immediate risk compared to thromboembolism. Choice C is a routine care task that can be delayed, and Choice D, discontinuing intravenous fluid, is important but not as urgent as preventing thromboembolism.
4. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Wait until the machine discharges
- B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
- C. Make sure the client is all right
- D. Increase the joules and re-discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.
5. The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in a minute
- B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate
- C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3
- D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.
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