Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
• B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
• C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
• D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.

2. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?

• A. Red meat
• B. Chicken
• C. Fish
• D. Dairy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.

3. The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?

• A. Start the transfusion at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes
• B. Re-crossmatch the blood until the antibodies are identified
• C. Have the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood
• D. Have the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is the correct precaution to implement when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the presence of antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified is not practical and may delay the transfusion, potentially compromising the patient's condition. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood is not the best course of action as the focus should be on ensuring a safe transfusion. Having an unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client does not address the specific precaution needed to manage a transfusion in the presence of antibodies.

4. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Buildup of ammonia in the body
• B. Buildup of urea in the body
• C. Fatty infiltration of the liver
• D. Jaundice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will take the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast.
• C. I will need to avoid taking this medication with coffee.
• D. I will take antacids if needed, 2 hours after I take ferrous sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should be taken on an empty stomach to improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as taking the medication with a full glass of milk would impair iron absorption. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding the administration of ferrous sulfate. Choice B ensures proper timing before breakfast, choice C highlights avoiding coffee due to interference with iron absorption, and choice D correctly suggests taking antacids a few hours after ferrous sulfate to prevent potential interactions.

Similar Questions