Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. A submarine sandwich, potato chips, and diet cola
• B. Four (4) slices of a supreme thin-crust pizza and milk
• C. Smoked turkey sandwich, celery sticks, and unsweetened tea
• D. A roast beef sandwich, fried onion rings, and a cola

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.

2. The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?

• A. The client’s BP is 110/70
• B. The client’s potassium level is 3.4 mEq/L
• C. The client has a barky cough
• D. The client’s apical pulse is 56

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.

3. The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. What is the correct order of basic CPR steps?

• A. Ensure the scene is safe, assess responsiveness, call for help, begin chest compressions, give two rescue breaths
• B. Give two rescue breaths
• C. Look, listen, and feel for breathing
• D. Begin chest compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor the urine for bright-red bleeding
• B. Evaluate the calorie count of the 500-mg protein diet
• C. Assess the client’s sacrum for dependent edema
• D. Monitor for a high serum albumin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client’s sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.

5. During a physical assessment of a newborn, which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize reporting?

• A. Head circumference of 40 cm
• B. Chest circumference of 32 cm
• C. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp
• D. Heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A head circumference of 40 cm is abnormally large for a newborn and could indicate conditions like hydrocephalus or other abnormalities, making it a crucial finding to report. Choices B, C, and D are within normal parameters for a newborn and do not pose immediate concerns. Chest circumference of 32 cm is a normal finding. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common in newborns due to physiological adaptations. A heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min may be within the normal range for a newborn.

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