ATI RN
RN Nursing Care of Children 2019 With NGN
1. Surgery is performed on a child to correct cryptorchidism. The parents understand the reason for the surgery if they tell the nurse this was done to do what?
- A. Prevent damage to the undescended testicle.
- B. Prevent urinary tract infections.
- C. Prevent prostate cancer.
- D. Prevent an inguinal hernia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary reason for correcting cryptorchidism through surgery is to prevent damage to the undescended testicle, which can lead to infertility and increase the risk of testicular cancer. Prevention of UTIs and prostate cancer are not the primary concerns in this context.
2. Patients with kidney stones should increase their intake of:
- A. fluids
- B. vitamin C
- C. oxalates
- D. protein
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with kidney stones should increase their intake of fluids. Increasing fluid intake helps to dilute the urine and reduce the risk of kidney stones forming by flushing out minerals that can crystallize. This promotes the passage of small stones and helps prevent the formation of new ones. Vitamin C and protein intake should be moderated as excessive consumption may lead to the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Oxalates should be limited in the diet as they can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, a common type of kidney stone.
3. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
- A. Nasal flaring
- B. WBC count of 11,300
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Abdominal distension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.
5. When planning care for a client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS), which of the following actions should not be included in the care plan?
- A. Administer antibiotics
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Administer antiviral medications
- D. Administer bronchodilators
Correct answer: Administer antibiotics
Rationale: Severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (SARS) is caused by a virus, not bacteria, and antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. Therefore, administering antibiotics would not be appropriate in the care plan for a client with SARS. The priority interventions for SARS include providing supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation, administering antiviral medications to target the viral infection, and using bronchodilators to help with bronchospasm or airway constriction. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is a secondary bacterial infection present.
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