procedure performed prior blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities is called
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 7

1. What procedure is performed prior to a blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Grouping and crossmatching is the procedure performed prior to a blood transfusion to determine the blood type and identify any potential incompatibilities between the donor and recipient. This process involves testing the recipient's blood for ABO and Rh antigens and crossmatching it with the donor's blood to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions during the transfusion. Complete blood count, D-dimer test, and blood clotting test are other laboratory tests that serve different purposes and are not specifically done to detect incompatibilities prior to blood transfusion.

2. Which action exemplifies a policy-level intervention in community health?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advocating for legislative changes is a policy-level intervention as it involves influencing and promoting changes in laws and regulations that can have a broad impact on community health outcomes. This type of intervention aims to address systemic issues and create sustainable improvements in public health by shaping policies at a higher level.

3. Which best describes the role of a community health nurse in promoting health?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A community health nurse plays a vital role in promoting health by advocating for health policy changes. By advocating for policy changes that support healthy environments, access to care, and addressing social determinants of health, community health nurses work towards improving the overall health and well-being of the community they serve. While providing direct care to individuals and families, educating the community about healthy lifestyles, and conducting research on community health issues are important aspects of nursing practice, advocating for health policy changes has a broader impact on population health outcomes.

4. Which action is an example of secondary prevention in public health?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is screening for early signs of disease (Choice C). Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of diseases to prevent their progression. By screening for early signs of disease, individuals can receive timely interventions, leading to better health outcomes. Administering vaccines (Choice A) falls under primary prevention by preventing the occurrence of diseases. Providing treatment for chronic diseases (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, which focuses on managing and reducing complications of established diseases. Offering health education workshops (Choice D) can be part of primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

5. Match the following terms in column A with the correct definition in Column B:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Topical anesthesia involves applying the anesthetic agent directly to the skin and mucous membranes to numb the area. On the other hand, epidural anesthesia involves injecting the anesthetic into the epidural space surrounding the spinal cord. Therefore, the correct matches are: I. Topical anesthesia with the definition of applying the agent directly to the skin and mucous membranes (Choice C), and II. Epidural anesthesia with the definition of injecting the anesthesia in the epidural space around the spinal cord (Choice D).

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