ATI RN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. During a discussion about partograph, a clinical instructor asked a midwifery student about its components. Which of the following are parts of the partograph? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
- A. Maternal Wellbeing
- B. Fetal Wellbeing
- C. Fetal Heart Rate
- D. Maternal Vital Signs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the partograph, components such as Maternal Wellbeing, Fetal Wellbeing, and Fetal Heart Rate are recorded. Maternal Vital Signs are not typically part of the partograph. Therefore, 'Maternal Vital Signs' is the correct answer as it is not a part of the partograph.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.
3. An enema is prescribed for a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Prepare 750 ml of irrigating solution warmed to 100*F
- B. Question the physician about the order
- C. Provide privacy and explain the procedure to the client
- D. Assist the client to left lateral Sim’s position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An enema is contraindicated in clients with suspected appendicitis because it can increase the risk of perforation. It is important to verify the appropriateness of this order with the physician.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client reports taking warfarin
- B. Client has a history of hypertension
- C. Client ate a light breakfast 2 hours prior
- D. Client reports a history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who reports muscle spasms in his calves and tingling in his hands. The client indicates consuming a low intake of milk products and green leafy vegetables. The nurse should identify that the client's findings indicate a deficiency in which of the following sources of nutrition?
- A. Iron
- B. Omega 3 fatty acids
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Calcium deficiency is indicated by muscle spasms and tingling, and is common with low intake of milk products and green leafy vegetables.
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