if a task is delegated to someone they need to be granted the to complete the task
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Leadership Exam

1. If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Authority When a task is delegated, it is essential to grant the individual the authority to complete it. Authority refers to the power or right to give commands, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Planning (choice B), organizing (choice C), and controlling (choice D) are important aspects of management but do not directly address the need for authorization to carry out a delegated task.

2. Which of the following is a positive benefit of conflict within an organization?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Conflict within an organization can have positive outcomes as it helps individuals recognize legitimate differences, fostering diversity of thought and perspectives. This recognition can serve as a motivator for individuals to enhance their performance in order to address and adapt to these differences effectively, ultimately leading to improved organizational outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because conflict should not lead to compromising core values and beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as conflict typically leads to competition rather than collaboration. Choice D is incorrect because conflict does not always result in a win-win resolution; in reality, conflicts often involve compromise and trade-offs rather than everyone winning.

3. What is the main purpose of the NCLEX examination?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main purpose of the NCLEX examination is to ensure the safety of the public by determining if candidates have the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective nursing care. Choice A is incorrect as the exam evaluates if individuals are ready to begin nursing practice, not just passed classes. Choice B is incorrect as the exam is not related to the affiliation of nursing schools with service agencies. Choice C is incorrect as the exam is not designed to help potential students choose the best nursing schools, but rather to assess individual readiness for nursing practice to protect public safety.

4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.

5. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching they received about pain management?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client is demonstrating an understanding of the preoperative teaching by acknowledging the pain and relating it to the need to rest. Walking may exacerbate the pain, and the client's decision not to walk shows an awareness of their body's signals. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect a good understanding of pain management. Choice A suggests self-medicating without consulting healthcare providers, choice B focuses on distraction rather than addressing the pain, and choice C offers a coping mechanism but does not address the pain directly.

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