Nursing Elites

1. If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

• A. Authority
• B. Planning
• C. Organizing
• D. Controlling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Authority When a task is delegated, it is essential to grant the individual the authority to complete it. Authority refers to the power or right to give commands, make decisions, and enforce obedience. Planning (choice B), organizing (choice C), and controlling (choice D) are important aspects of management but do not directly address the need for authorization to carry out a delegated task.

2. Cultural diversity presents an important challenge to nurse managers due to which of the following?

• A. A nursing shortage exists
• B. Staff nurses are not trained to be culturally sensitive
• C. 80% of nursing staff comes from one or more minority groups
• D. The increase in cultural diversity is seen both in the patient population and the nursing staff

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cultural diversity presents an important challenge to nurse managers due to the increase in cultural diversity seen both in the patient population and the nursing staff. This challenge requires nurse managers to ensure that their nursing staff can effectively communicate and provide culturally competent care to patients from diverse backgrounds. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly relate to the impact of cultural diversity. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the training of staff nurses rather than the overall challenge of managing cultural diversity. Choice C is incorrect as the percentage of nursing staff from minority groups, while important, is not the primary reason cultural diversity poses a challenge to nurse managers.

3. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

4. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
• B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
• C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
• D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.

5. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

• A. Administering vaccinations
• B. Performing a surgical procedure
• C. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices
• D. Prescribing medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering vaccinations is indeed an example of a primary prevention strategy. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs by targeting the entire population or specific high-risk groups. Vaccinations help prevent the initial development of a disease by enhancing immunity against specific pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of primary prevention strategies. Performing a surgical procedure (Choice B) is a treatment intervention, not a preventive measure. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices (Choice C) falls under health promotion and education, which is more aligned with secondary prevention. Prescribing medication (Choice D) is typically associated with treatment rather than preventing the initial onset of a disease.

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