ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- B. Encouraging the patient to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Administering 15g of fast-acting carbohydrates
- D. Administering glucagon if the patient is unconscious
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response to a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer 15g of fast-acting carbohydrates. This helps quickly increase the blood glucose levels in the patient, addressing the low blood sugar. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes (Choice A) may delay necessary intervention, encouraging a high-protein snack (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not rapidly increase blood sugar levels, and administering glucagon if the patient is unconscious (Choice D) is typically done in severe cases of hypoglycemia when the patient is unable to eat or drink.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following lab values should the provider report?
- A. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 3.6 mEq/L
- C. Sodium 126 mEq/L
- D. Chloride 99 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 126 mEq/L. A sodium level of 126 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hyponatremia, which can have serious health implications and should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within or close to the normal ranges for magnesium, potassium, and chloride, respectively, and do not require immediate reporting as they are not significantly abnormal.
4. The psychosocial task of a 55 year old adult client is:
- A. Industry vs. Inferiority
- B. Intimacy vs. Isolation
- C. Integrity vs. Despair
- D. Generativity vs. Stagnation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
5. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?
- A. ACE inhibitor
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Diuretic
- D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
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