how should a nurse position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers how should a nurse position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.

2. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is typically between 5 and 7 years old. This age group is most affected due to the higher incidence of streptococcal infections in school-aged children, which can lead to this renal complication.

3. After a violent incident, staff needs to discuss what occurred. Several actions need to be taken following the incident:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: After a violent incident, it is crucial to debrief the staff and complete incident reports to document what occurred and ensure proper follow-up actions. Verifying that all staff are safe is essential for their well-being and security. This process allows professionals to assess the situation, learn from it, and be better prepared to handle similar incidents in the future. Choice B is incorrect because reassuring a violent patient that hurting staff is not a cause for concern may diminish the seriousness of the incident. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding interactions does not address the need for proper communication and resolution. Choice D is incorrect as standing close to a patient who has been violent may escalate the situation and compromise safety.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

5. What type of gastrointestinal complication is most likely to be caused by the use of antibiotics to treat H. pylori infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Altered taste sensation. The use of antibiotics is known to cause changes in taste sensation as a side effect, especially when used to treat H. pylori infections. Hemoptysis (Choice A) refers to coughing up blood, and while it can be a symptom of various conditions, it is not typically associated with the use of antibiotics. Flatulence (Choice C) and bloody stools (Choice D) can also occur as gastrointestinal complications, but they are not the most likely side effect when treating H. pylori with antibiotics. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

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